MDT Emergency Trauma medicine

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  1. Impaired coagulaition and Cardiac Abnormalities are metabolic changes associated with poor prognosis in what condition if not treated
  2. What is a temporary space created as a result of kinetic energy from a missle dispersing into moving body tissue
  3. Pulmonary edema, Head injuries, pregnant females or those that are immediate post partum are all contraindicated for the use of what intervention in a traumatic scenario
    Mast Garments
  4. What makes IV administration over IM administration the preferred method for opiate analgesia in the trauma patient
    • quicker onset
    • easier to titrate the dose
  5. A patient with critical injuries who will require minimal intervention to ensure the preservation of life limb or eye sight
    Immediate (tirage catagory)
  6. For optimal survival of a trauma patient what injury is the most important to recognize and treat effectivly first
    Hemorrhage control
  7. How many cavities are produced by a missile wound
  8. THis type of cavity is caused by the direct path of the progectile and permenantly necroses and crushes tissue
    Permenant cavity
  9. This cavity is tissue damaged by the cavitation of the cavity due to kenetic energy
  10. Upper airway trauma, thermal/toxic inhalation and anaphylactic reaction are all clear indicators to perform what procedure
    Surgical Cricothyroidotomy
  11. What is the goal of fluid resuscitation in an electrocuted patient
    Urine output up to 75-100ml per hr to prevent rhabdomialgia
  12. what factors influence mortality and recovery in burn patients in relation to burn mortality and recovery
    • depth of burn
    • extent of burn
    • age of patient
    • prior physical condition
  13. which type of tissue has the greatest resistance to high voltage current
  14. The spalling affect is when bone fragments during an injury become what kind of missiles
  15. What is a blow out kit?
    easily open bag of unpacked trauma materials
  16. NSAIDS should be avoided in a tactical enviroment because they decrease platelet aggregation and prolong bleeding times, due to this patients should switch to what prior to deployment
    • COX 2 inhibitor
    • tylenol
  17. Life saving drugs should be used regardless of fetal effects in what type of patient
  18. supine hypotension is caused when a pregnant trauma patient does what
    lay supine
  19. During tactical field care phase two: what 2 factors provide the biggest challenge for the care of the wounded
    • Limited supplies
    • restricted movement
  20. What is the specific drug that may be used to correct respiratoty depression in a patient who has been over medicated with morphine or nubain
  21. Patient with injuries so severe that they have minimal chance of survival or injuries incompatible with life
  22. Patient with minimal injuries that can wait for treatment or even assist with medical task are categorized as what for triage
  23. What is definitive treatment for tension pnuemothorax
    chest tube
  24. Which of the following organs is the most sensitive to a primary blast injury
  25. What is the criteria for burns to be classified as minor
    • 1st degree=<50% BSA
    • 2nd degree=< 15% adults/10% children
    • 3rd degree=< 2% BSA
  26. excess cooling of large burns may lead to what complication
  27. What is the criteria for a reprofusion break for after applying a tornique
    loosen for 20 min q2hrs
  28. which of the following is the most reliable field indicators of shock
    • Change in LOC
    • Altered mental status
    • Absent radial pulse
  29. Cricothyroidotomy has a questionable efficacy airway procedure for use in what type of trauma patients
    Blunt laryangial trauma
  30. What are the three catagories used by the glasgow coma scale to evaluate head injury patients
    • Eye
    • Verbal
    • Motor
  31. What is a common failure of quick clot if bleeding is not controlled prior to application
    Flow out of wound cavity
  32. What are the benefits of tylenol for use in operational pain control
    Pt can continue as a combatant
  33. What is the leading cause of fetal death, second only to maternal death
    Abruption placenta
  34. Underwater blast have a lethal radius how many times greater than air burst
    3 times
  35. Peritoneal sensitivity is common due to passive stretching of the abdominal wall, after what week of gestational age
    12 weeks
  36. urinary output goal of .5-1ml/kg/hr when usiong fluid infusion in what type of patients
  37. what is the most common narcotic medication used for pain control of trauma patients and dosage
    Morphine 5/10 mg
  38. which of the following conditions should a inhalation burn patient closely monitored for
    Pulmonary edema
  39. What organ would be most likely injured in blunt force trauma to the abdomen when the victims present with symptoms of hypovolemic shock but no obvious bleeding
  40. Shear trauma is most frequently produced from what type of injury to the body
    Accel-decel injury
  41. What are the examples of PPE for preventions of combat trauma
    • Eye protection
    • Ear protection
    • Sapi plates
    • Head gear
  42. What is the parkland-baxter formula what is the proper infusion rate for a burn patient and how is it administered
    • 2-4 cc/k per % of BSa over a 24 hr period
    • first 1/2 over 8 hrs, second 1/2 over 16
  43. What are two preferred medication used for thier anesthestic effects? describe the benefits of each of them
    • Lidocain-quick uptake; short duration
    • Morcain- slow uptake; long lasting
  44. patients with injuries not requiring immediate intervention to prevent loss of life, eyesight or limb
  45. Describe all the components of MARCH mnemonic used for the extended field care
    • M-Massive Hemorrhage
    • A-Airway Compromise
    • R- Respiratory
    • C-
    • H-
  46. A pregnant female presentsing with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain and tetanic uterine contractions is likely experiencing what condition
    • Abruption placenta
    • 8 contractions in a 4 hr period
  47. What evacustion priority would you give to a patient tht you feel needs to be CASEVAC within 2 hrs
  48. Evacuation priority for a routine catagory should be CASEVAC in what time frame
    Within 24 hrs
  49. You recieve an injured person with multiple puncture wounds to neck and face. Minimal bleeding, but increasing difficulty breathing. What should be your first course of action in this person
  50. In a sucking chest wound, what secondary complication must you monitor the patient for
    Tension pneumothorax
  51. What is the fluid challenfe in an electrocution injury patient
    20/40 cc/k over 60 min LR
  52. Rhabdomylosis is a condition that can be a result of a patient being electrocuted, aggressive fluid resuscitation is vital to prevent which complication
    Renal failure
  53. Patients that sustain an electrical shock injury should be monitored for 24 hrs for what complication
    Cardical dysrythmias
  54. What are some potential complications for the patient skin and provider are associated with quick clot
  55. Severe acidosis and toxic shock can result in rapid release of a tornique left inplace longer than what time frame
    6 hrs
  56. In the absence of hemorrhage control what is contraindicated in a trauma patient
    Fluid recessitation
  57. What volume expander draws in 800 cc for 8 hours
  58. You may give 500cc Hetastarch infusions every 30 minutes to what maximum amount of fluid
    1000 cc
  59. Using insulation for warming a hypothermic casualty, is an example of what type f technique
  60. In severe hypothermia cases, core temp below 82.4 what is a severe life threatening event that can occur
    ventriccular fibulation
  61. All trauma patients are susceptibe to what regardless of envromental conditions, even the warmest desert conditions
  62. Adequate direct pressure must be applied long enough to provide what
    Occlusion of blood vessel so a blood clot can form
  63. How many patient catagories are there n a CASEVAC decesion path
  64. What blast injury is the direct effect of an overpressure wave
  65. Secondary blast injury effect is caused how
    Energized projectiles
  66. What are two indicators that ventilations of a closed head injury patient are effetive if unable to obtain pCO2
    • Improved LOC
    • Respirations
  67. What are the five p's pf compartment syndrom
    • Palor
    • P
    • P
    • P
    • P
  68. In blunt force trauma evaluation of the GCS is <7 what action is needed
    Immedicate medivac
  69. In secondary trauma assesment what does the p in the mnemonic AMPLE mean
    Past medical or durgical HX
  70. Penicillin should be avoided in wound care for what purpose
    High incedent of allergic reactions
  71. How many patient catagories are there in the truage decesion path
  72. displacement of the diaphram up to 4 cm, causes decreased maternal ability to tolerate what
    Respiratory compromise
  73. A poor fetal prognosis is ecpected when a patient has how many contactions in 4 hours following a major trauma
  74. What opiod analgesic has less affect to the respiratory system than morphoine
  75. narcan is a narcotic competitive inhibitor with a half life of how long
    45 min
  76. What is the process of sorting casualities to identify the priority of treatment
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MDT Emergency Trauma medicine
Procedures in Emergency Trauma, the bread and butter of IDC
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