Loadmaster MQF 1-150

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Author:
ian.nims
ID:
91497
Filename:
Loadmaster MQF 1-150
Updated:
2011-06-22 07:30:55
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MQF
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ac130umqf
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  1. An operating procedure, technique, etc, which could result in personal injury and/ or loss of life if not carefully followed, is known as a
    "____________".

    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Note
    B. Caution
    C. Warning
    D. Deviation
    C
  2. An operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is known as a
    "___________".
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Note
    B. Caution
    C. Warning
    D. Deviation
    B
  3. An operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize, is known as a
    "__________".
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Note
    B. Caution
    C. Warning
    D. Deviation
    A
  4. Which of the following words is used to indicate a mandatory requirement?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Shall
    B. Will
    C. May
    D. both A & B
    D
  5. Which of the following words indicates an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Will
    B. Shall
    C. May
    D. Should
    C
  6. Which of the following words is used to indicate a
    non-mandatory provision?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Shall
    B. Will
    C. May
    D. Should
    D
  7. The signal to prepare for bailout is __________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. three long rings
    B. three short rings
    C. six long rings
    D. six short rings
    B
  8. The signal to prepare for ditching or gear up landing is __________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. three short rings
    B. three long rings
    C. six short rings
    D. six long rings
    C
  9. One long sustained ring while the aircraft is in the air means _________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. bailout
    B. emergency, all crewmembers off comm come back up
    C. brace for impact
    D. Both A and C
    D
  10. The signal to abandon aircraft while on the ground is six short rings.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  11. If a main wheel well fire exists or hot brakes are expected and ammunition is not onboard, clear personnel for at least _______ feet
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 300
    B. 500
    C. 1000
    D. 2500
    A
  12. If conditions require personnel to be close to any
    overheated wheel or tire assembly, the approach should be from the fore or aft only.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    A
  13. The auxiliary hydraulic system hand pump may be used for stopping the airplane in an emergency by
    pumping the brake pedals while the hand pump is being operated.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A.True
    B. False
    B
  14. In the event of a main wheelwell fire, or if hot brakes are suspected, the loadmaster will chock
    _________ (time and conditions permitting).
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. the opposite main tire/wheel assembly only
    B. both main tire/wheel assemblies
    C. the nose wheel only
    D. Either A or C
    C
  15. Where are the exterior chopping locations?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. above the right paratroop door and above the 105MM cannon
    B. forward of the 105MM gun and forward of the right paratroop door
    C. near the right paratroop door and the
    emergency egress panel
    D. near the right paratroop door and the crew entrance door
    A
  16. Emergency chopping locations are painted in _____________On the exterior of the fuselage.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. yellow
    B. red
    C. gray
    D. yellow and black hash marks
    C
  17. In the event of failure of the ramp loading light switch the circuit breaker on the aft fuselage junction box may be used to turn the lights off and on during the flight.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  18. An attempt to extinguish a cargo door open light without depressurizing the aircraft by turning the aux pump on and going to CLOSE with the cargo door control switch is permissible as the
    cargo door is an inward opening door so there is no danger of a rapid decompression.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  19. In the event a fire is near an oxygen component or there is the possibility that oxygen could increase the fire, consideration should be given to closing ________ provided portable oxygen bottles are adequate for the situation.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. the air conditioning outflow valve
    B. all doors and hatches
    C. the overboard vent
    D. the oxygen manual shutoff valve
    D
  20. Prolonged exposure ( ____ minutes or more) to high concentrations of fire extinguisher agent should be avoided.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    D
  21. When fighting an aircraft fire, especially in confined spaces, adequate respiratory and eye protection from excessive exposure, including the use of oxygen when available, should be sought when ______________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. the primary fire emergency will permit
    B. it is directed by the AC
    C. it is directed by the FE
    D. five minutes of exposure time has elapsed
    A
  22. On decomposition, Halon 1211 has a characteristic _________, even in concentrations of only a few parts per million.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. faint, acrid odor
    B. sharp, bitter odor
    C. sharp, acrid odor
    D. faint, bitter odor
    C
  23. During smoke and fume elimination, if passengers are aboard, and oxygen equipment is not available for them, ______ before depressurizing the airplane:
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. have passengers share an oxygen mask
    B. descend to a lower altitude
    C. have passengers use an oxygen hose without a mask
    D. None of the above
    B
  24. If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment _______________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. may be turned off to reduce the risk of an explosion
    B. will be turned off to reduce the risk of an explosion
    C. should not be turned on or off until the fumes are eliminated
    D. may be turned on or off as necessary. All electrical components are explosion-proof.
    C
  25. The forward escape hatch must be opened to effectively eliminate smoke/fumes.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    A
  26. Oxygen regulators will be set to the EMERGENCY position while running Fuselage Fire/Smoke and Fume Elimination Emergency procedures.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  27. When smoke and fumes are in the gun deck, what should be done with the BMC/CRC doors?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Open BMC/CRC doors.
    B. Do not open BMC/CRC doors.
    C. Close BMC doors and open CRC doors.
    D. None of the above
    B
  28. If the paratroop door cannot be opened for Smoke and Fumes Elimination due to gundeck fire, smoke
    and/or fumes, no attempt should be made to use
    another opening.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  29. Upon notification of a door open warning light, all
    crewmembers with the exception of the LM and FE will fasten their seatbelts.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  30. If the right paratroop door was the cause of a door warning light illumination, what will be worn by the
    loadmaster when checking the condition of the
    door?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. parachute
    B. nothing is required to be worn while checking the Rt. Paratroop Door
    C. restraint harness
    D. Either A or C
    D
  31. A sudden uncontrollable loss of cabin pressure is known as "__________".
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Cabin Implosion
    B. Cabin Differential Pressurization
    C. Emergency Depressurization
    D. Rapid Decompression
    D
  32. For in-flight door warnings, if the doors are secure and the trouble is determined to be a door warning
    switch, the aircraft __________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. must land as soon as possible
    B. may continue flight unpressurized
    C. may be fully pressurized
    D. No action is required
    C
  33. Should binding occur between the outboard flap and the aileron and it is possible to control the airplane,
    Ref (A)U-1
    A. no attempt should be made to move the flaps.
    B. return the flaps to the position last selected before failure
    C. cycle the ailerons until the binding stops
    D. none of the above
    A
  34. After failure of the normal flap system operation occurs, the order of preference for alternate methods is:
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. overriding the flap selector valve, then
    emergency hydraulic extension
    B. overriding the flap selector valve, then
    manual flap extension
    C. manual flap extension, then overriding the flap selector valve
    D. manual flap extension only
    B
  35. Protection against asymmetrical operation is provided only during __________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. when DC power is
    B. when DC power and booster hydraulic pressure are simultaneously
    C. when utility hydraulic pressure is
    D. normal hydraulic flap operation
    D
  36. When manually moving the flaps the input shaft pin is removed after engaging the handcrank on the input Shaft.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    A
  37. During manual override of the flap selector valve the flaps will be moved in approximately ______ percent increments.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 5
    B. 10
    C. 15
    D. 20
    B
  38. Should a failure of the flap drive torque tube occur during manual operation, resulting in a change in trim about the roll axis, stop flap movement immediately and
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. hold the flaps in position with the hand
    crank.
    B. move the flap handle to the position the flaps are in, and land with the condition.
    C. manually return the controllable flaps to the position assumed by the uncontrollable flaps.
    D. release the asymmetrical flap brake valve andreturn the flaps to the desired position.
    C
  39. If the flaps are manually extended because of utility hydraulic system failure, why is the pin inserted in the input shaft and the "T" handle left out?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Holds the flaps in the selected position.
    B. Prevents slippage of the slip clutch.
    C. Reengages asymmetrical brake protection.
    D. Disengages the flap gearbox
    A
  40. The main landing gear is down when ___________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. the groove on the pin, or fluorescent paint is visible
    B. the bottom of the ball nut contacts the bumper stop
    C. the warning light is off
    D. no light is visible through the inspection
    windows
    B
  41. Place the following methods of landing gear operation in order of preference:
    1. Manual gear extension ( Main gear ). (
    Hydraulic malfunction )
    2. Overriding the landing gear selector valve
    ( Electrical malfunction )
    3. Emergency hydraulic extension. ( Nose gear)
    4. Emergency hydraulic extension. ( Main gear
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 2, 4, 3, 1
    B. 2, 4, 1, 3
    C. 4, 2, 3, 1
    D. 4, 2, 1, 3
    B
  42. If utility system pressure loss was caused by a leak downstream of the ________, the auxiliary hydraulic system should not be used for landing gear extension.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. power transfer valve
    B. landing gear selector valve
    C. utility suction boost pump
    D. utility accumulator
    A
  43. When are the landing gear selector valve override buttons used to operate the main and nose landing gear system?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. When there is no evidence of hydraulic leaks or pressure loss.
    B. After the utility system has failed.
    C. In case of electrical failure.
    D. Both A and C are correct.
    D
  44. When manually overriding the landing gear selector valve, and the override button must be held in to extend the gear, what system will not be available upon landing (unless the button is
    held in)?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Anti-skid and normal wheel brakes.
    B. Nose wheel steering and normal brakes.
    C. Normal wheel brakes.
    D. Nose wheel steering.
    D
  45. Return the Landing Gear Emergency Extension valve handle to the NORMAL position after lowering the landing gear to ensure that full auxiliary hydraulic system pressure is available for
    the emergency brakes.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  46. If during main landing gear emergency extension, the gear starts to free-fall after the hand crank is placed on the extension stub shaft, you should immediately __________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. release the hand crank
    B. remove the hand crank
    C. ensure the hand crank stays on the stub shaft
    D. None of the above are correct
    B
  47. When free falling the nose landing gear, airspeed is increased when the __________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. forward door starts to open
    B. aft door starts to close
    C. forward gear door starts to close
    D. aft door starts to open
    C
  48. After extending the nose landing gear by emergency means, what provisions are there to visually inspect that it is in the down and locked position?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. By removing the NLG inspection window and trying to install the NLG pin.
    B. By visually checking the centering cams.
    C. By visually checking the pin that protrudes from the aft end of the actuator.
    D. There is no provision for a visual
    check. Tie down should be considered.
    C
  49. The nose landing gear should be tied down, if it will not lock in the down position.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  50. During manual extension of the main landing gear, extend the __________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. forward strut first
    B. aft strut first
    C. forward and aft struts simultaneously
    D. It doesn't matter which one is first
    B
  51. What two bolts and nuts should be removed first, when disconnecting the main landing gear vertical torque shaft?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. outboard
    B. inboard
    C. aft
    D. forward
    A
  52. Which end of the emergency extension wrench is used to initially start lowering the main landing gear ballscrew?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. ratchet end
    B. square end
    C. hex end
    D. fixed end
    D
  53. The nose landing gear can be manually retracted in an emergency.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  54. When using chains to tie down the main landing gear move all personnel ___________ to prevent injury if a chain should break.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. away from the wheel well
    B. from the gundeck to the flight deck
    C. in the aft BMC seats to the forward BMC seats
    D. Movement of personnel not required. Tensile strength of chains exceeds maximum
    forces that may be generated by landing shock.
    A
  55. If the cargo ramp locks still fail to lock after using the aux hydraulic pump repeat Ramp Locks Fail to Lock procedures using the aux handpump at approximately _______ psi.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 3300
    B. 3500
    C. 4100
    D. 4500
    C
  56. In the event the ramp locks fail to engage when attempting to close the ramp in flight, select position ______ on the manual control knob and leave the aux pump on for the remainder of the
    flight.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 6
    B. 4
    C. 2
    D. 1
    B
  57. If in-flight damage occurs to the aircraft, the crew will check in on interphone________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. from rear to front
    B. from front to rear
    C. as briefed by the pilot
    D. as they appear on the flight orders
    B
  58. The order of preference for cargo/ammo jettison is
    __________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. paratroop door, ramp and cargo door
    B. paratroop door, ramp and cargo door, aft scanner's bubble
    C. ramp and cargo door, paratroop door, aft scanner's bubble
    D. ramp and cargo door, paratroop door
    D
  59. Time permitting, which of the following factors should be discussed prior to overwater bailout to increase the probability of survival.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. available survival equipment, viable rescue resources
    B. aircraft configuration, bailout airspeed
    C. wind/sea conditions and distance to land
    D. All of the above
    D
  60. The correct procedure for bailout from the crew entrance door is __________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. exit feet first, with arms and legs spread to increase stability
    B. Do not use the forward crew entrance door for bailout.
    C. get out as fast as you can, any way you can
    D. exit from a squatting position at the rear of the door; push ahead first outward and downward, using the rear edge of the doorframe for leverage
    B
  61. Why should the life preserver not be inflated prior to bailout over water?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. It will interfere with parachute opening.
    B. It may be damaged in egress.
    C. It may hinder your exit.
    D. Both B and C
    d
  62. If the aircraft is under control and time permits, what is the order of preference for bailout exits?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. cargo door and ramp, paratroop door, forward crew entry door
    B. paratroop door, cargo door only
    C. cargo door and ramp, paratroop door
    D. cargo door, paratroop door, ramp
    C
  63. The signal to abandon the airplane will be given by 1 long ring of the alarm bell and ____________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. warning over the interphone
    B. 3 short rings of the alarm bell
    C. illumination of the in-flight door warning
    light
    D. the pilots making a mad dash for the ramp
    A
  64. Munitions/flares need not be expended/jettisoned prior to gear up landing due to the improved ammunition storage and handling system (ASHS).
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  65. In any condition of tire or landing gear extension failure, prior to landing, number 2 and number 3 guns should be ______________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. fully extended
    B. elevated and retracted
    C. depressed no more than 15 degrees
    D. elevated
    D
  66. Prior to gear-up landing, which exits should be opened?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. overhead escape hatches and paratroop door
    B. overhead escape hatches, paratroop door and cargo door
    C. overhead escape hatches, paratroop door and side emergency exits
    D. overhead escape hatches only
    A
  67. Personnel working near an open door in-flight will be restrained by a ___________ or by wearing a
    __________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. tiedown strap; parachute
    B. restraint harness; parachute
    C. tiedown strap; harness
    D. Any of the above
    B
  68. Prior to a gear up landing, if time permits, drain all
    liquid oxygen by ________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. depressing the emergency deplete switch on the co-pilots console.
    B. depressing the jettison switch on the right wheel well, adjacent to the converter
    C. placing all oxygen regulators on
    "Emergency"
    D. None of the above
    C
  69. In preparation for a gear-up landing, do not lock the shoulder harness inertia reel (if available).
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  70. Crew members should don ___________ prior to a gear up landing.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. LPUs and gloves
    B. helmets and seatkits
    C. helmets and gloves
    D. All of the above
    C
  71. What is the signal to brace for impact for gear up landing?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 1 short ring of the alarm bell
    B. 1 long ring of the alarm bell
    C. 3 long rings of the alarm bell
    D. 6 long rings of the alarm bell
    B
  72. Ditching should only be considered as a last resort.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    A
  73. Due to the gunship's configuration, the gun deck is
    considered an unsurvivable area in a ditching situation.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    A
  74. After ditching, inflating LPU's prior to exiting the
    aircraft, is recommended when?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. When exiting out of the crew entrance door.
    B. Inflate LPU's of injured personnel prior to exiting
    C. Always recommended to ensure a serviceable LPU is available.
    D. Never recommended
    D
  75. During ditching the crew must not leave their crash positions until ________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. given clearance to move about by the Pilot
    B. the Pilot calls for the After Ditching
    checklist
    C. the airplane has come to a complete stop
    D. given one long ring of the alarm bell
    C
  76. Liferaft release handles must be _________ for complete ejection and inflation of the liferafts.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. pulled simultaneously
    B. pulled through their full travel
    C. squeezed and pulled
    D. pulled one at a time
    B
  77. If the liferafts did not eject properly after pulling the release handles, you should _____.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. attempt to pull the handles again
    B. pull the release handles in the flight deck
    C. pull the release handles on top of the wing
    D. use the 1-man rafts since the 20-man rafts are unusable
    C
  78. The loadmaster will exit the aircraft through the
    ________________ after ditching.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. center escape hatch
    B. aft escape hatch
    C. center or aft escape hatch
    D. swing windows
    C
  79. Which exits are opened prior to ditching?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Overhead escape hatches
    B. Overhead escape hatches and the paratroop door
    C. Pilot and co-pilot hinged windows
    D. Both A & C
    A
  80. During ditching procedures the loadmaster is required to provide _______.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. LPUs and first aid kit
    B. flashlight, first aid kit, and water containers
    C. flashlight and LPUs
    D. nothing- every crewmember for themselves
    B
  81. In the event of an aerial refueling line rupture, on command of the pilot the loadmaster will open the cargo ramp approximately ______ using the ________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 4 inches, auxiliary hydraulic pump
    B. 12 inches, auxiliary system hand pump
    C. 4 inches, auxiliary system hand pump
    D. 12 inches, auxiliary hydraulic pump
    C
  82. How is the air refueling valve opened or closed in the event of an electrical failure of the valve?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. There are no provisions to open or close the valve in the event of electrical failure.
    B. Manually move the red handle on the valve to the open or closed position.
    C. Electrical failure constitutes an emergency and in-flight refueling will not be accomplished.
    D. Press the "Override" button on the
    valve to open/close it hydraulically.
    B
  83. The nose landing gear emergency extension valve is located _________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. between the co-pilot's seat and the control panel
    B. on the utility hydraulic panel
    C. forward of the nose landing gear inspection window
    D. aft of the crew entrance door at FS 260
    D
  84. The nose landing gear emergency extension valve allows for the_________ of the nose landing gear only and will not provide for _____upon landing.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. extension; nose wheel steering
    B. extension and retraction; auxiliary
    C. an alternate method for extension; utility
    D. extension; auxiliary.
    A
  85. Emergency nose gear steering power and/or pressure is provided by the __________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. auxiliary hydraulic system
    B. booster hydraulic system
    C. utility hydraulic system
    D. pilot's left hand
    A
  86. Of the alternate methods of gear operation, which provide for nose wheel steering?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Overriding the landing gear selector
    valve
    B. Emergency hydraulic extension ( main and nose gear )
    C. Emergency hydraulic extension ( nose gear )
    D. both A & B
    D
  87. The 25MM TGM Isolation valve is located
    ____________________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1-43
    A. on the LWCP at the gunner's station
    B. on the utility hydraulic panel (FS 440)
    C. above and behind the 25MM ASHS (FS 420)
    D. on the left fuselage wall above the 25MM gun (FS 260)
    D
  88. The 25MM TGM Isolation valve is used to isolate the 25MM TGM from the auxiliary hydraulic
    system.
    Ref: (A)U-1-43
    A. True
    B. False
    A
  89. The 25MM ASHS is operated by the auxiliary hydraulic system.
    Ref: (A)U-1-43
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  90. The 25MM gun isolation valve is located
    _______________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. FS 630, outboard and above the 40MM gun
    B. FS 420, forward of the utility hydraulic panel
    C. FS 620, gundeck center ceiling
    D. FS 248, aft of the crew entrance door
    B
  91. The _____ valve isolates the 25MM gun and ASHS from the __________hydraulic system.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 25MM Isolation; auxiliary
    B. 25MM TGM Isolation; auxiliary
    C. 25MM gun isolation; utility
    D. 25MM TGM Isolation; utility
    C
  92. The utility hydraulic system reservoir has a ________ gallon capacity.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 3.3
    B. 4.3
    C. 5.3
    D. 4.5
    B
  93. The utility system accumulator preload pressure is _________ +/- 100 psi.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 500
    B. 1000
    C. 1500
    D. 2000
    C
  94. An accumulator is installed in the utility and booster hydraulic systems to provide reserve pressure and a damping effect during demand and pressure fluctuations.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    A
  95. The ____________ valve is used to allow the auxiliary hydraulic system pressure to shift the power transfer valve, providing landing gear extension and nose wheel steering from the auxiliary hydraulic system.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Landing Gear Selector
    B. NLG Emergency Extension
    C. Priority
    D. Landing Gear Emergency Extension
    D
  96. The landing gear emergency extension valve located on the utility hydraulic panel is normally safety wired in the "____________" position.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. Emergency Extend
    B. Neutral
    C. Normal (closed)
    D. Off
    C
  97. The power transfer valve is installed _________ of the landing gear emergency extension valve.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. upstream
    B. downstream
    C. inside
    D. None of the above
    B
  98. Power transfer valve actuation is _________ if auxiliary system pressure is applied to it via the landing gear emergency extension valve and utility pressure is low.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. manually
    B. electrically
    C. automatic
    D. pneumatically
    C
  99. The power transfer valve provides the means to connect the ________ hydraulic system to the landing gear selector valve in the event of _______ system failure.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. utility; auxiliary
    B. auxiliary; booster
    C. booster; utility
    D. auxiliary; utility
    D
  100. The time required for full extension of the flaps is between ____ and ____ seconds.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 8; 15
    B. 10: 15
    C. 5; 10
    D. 12;
    15
    A
  101. The time required for full retraction of the flaps is
    between ____ and ____ seconds.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A.8; 15
    B.10; 15
    C.5;10
    D.12; 15
    B
  102. The normal flap brake is held in position hydraulically and released mechanically.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B.False
    B
  103. The emergency flap brakes are held in position hydraulically and released mechanically.
    Ref: (A)-1
    A.True
    B.False
    A
  104. The manual reset button/lever on the emergency flap brake valve will _____________.
    Ref:(A)U-1
    A. be used when an asymmetrical condition exists
    B. only be used when an asymmetrical condition does not exist
    C. be used when attempting to move the controllable flap to the uncontrollable flap
    D. never be used in-flight
    D
  105. The brake and radar isolation valve is located
    _________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. FS 248, aft of the crew entrance door
    B. FS 477, above the outer wall of the BMC
    C. FS 627, above the 40MM gun
    D. FS 620, gundeck center ceiling
    B
  106. Operating the Brake and Radar Isolation valve will isolate the ________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. normal brakes
    B. emergency brakes
    C. normal and emergency brakes
    D. None of the above
    A
  107. The booster hydraulic system reservoir has a _________gallon capacity.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 3.3
    B. 4.3
    C. 5.3
    D. 4.5
    C
  108. Normal utility and booster hydraulic system pressure isC_________ psi.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 2800 - 3300
    B. 2900 - 3200
    C. 2900 - 3300
    D. 2800 - 3200
    B
  109. Maximum allowable pressure on the utility, booster, and auxiliary hydraulic systems is _______ psi.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 3200
    B. 3300
    C. 3500
    D. 3700
    C
  110. The ________________ valve is located on the left gun deck wall, above the 40MM gun and aft of the left MLG wheelwell.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. brake and radar isolation
    B. elevator and aileron isolation
    C. priority
    D. rudder and elevator isolation
    D
  111. A rudder and elevator isolation valve provides the means to isolate the ________ hydraulic system from the hydraulic lines which run outside the
    protection of the gun deck armor.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. utility
    B. booster
    C. auxiliary
    D. emergency
    A
  112. In the event of electrical failure of the solenoid on the rudder and elevator isolation valve, the valve
    may be opened and closed manually.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  113. Both the "Brake and Radar Isolation Valve" and the "Rudder and Elevator Isolation Valve" are
    deenergized to the _____________ position.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. on
    B. open
    C. closed
    D. off
    B
  114. The priority valve is located _________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. FS 248, aft of the crew entrance door
    B. FS 477, above the outer wall of the BMC
    C. FS 627, above the 40MM gun
    D. FS 620, gundeck center ceiling
    D
  115. If booster system pressure drops below ______ psi, the priority valve begins to close, reducing flow to the guns.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 1500+/-100
    B. 2250
    C. 2900
    D. 3200
    B
  116. The purpose of the priority valve is to maintain adequate operating pressure for the ________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. flight controls
    B. 40MM and 105MM guns
    C. flaps
    D. landing gear
    A
  117. The 105/40MM isolation valve is located _____.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. FS 630, above the 40MM gun
    B. FS 420, forward of the utility hydraulic panel
    C. FS 620, gundeck center ceiling
    D. FS 248, aft of the crew entrance door
    A
  118. The 105/40MM Isolation valve is used to isolate the 40MM TGM, 105MM TGM, and the 105MM tube retraction manifold from the utility hydraulic
    system.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  119. When using aircraft power for tube retraction on the 105MM gun, what hydraulic system should be used to retract the gun?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. utility
    B. auxiliary
    C. manual
    D. booster
    D
  120. The auxiliary system reservoir has a _________ gallon capacity.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 3.3
    B. 4.3
    C. 5.3
    D. 4.5
    C
  121. Normal auxiliary hydraulic system pressure is _________ psi.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 2800 - 3300
    B. 2900 - 3200
    C. 2900 - 3300
    D. 2800 - 3200
    C
  122. The auxiliary hydraulic system accumulator preload pressure is 1500+/-100 psi.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  123. The auxiliary hydraulic system provides hydraulic power to the cargo door and ramp, 25MM TGM,
    normal brakes, UARRSI, landing gear extension and nose wheel steering, and emergency nose gear extension.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  124. The ramp manual control knob above the ramp control panel must be at the ____ position before operating the pump switch on the ramp control panel.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 2N
    B. 6N
    C. 4
    D. OFF
    B
  125. What numbers on the ramp control knob are used to raise and lock the cargo ramp manually?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 1 and 2
    B. 2 and 3
    C. 4 and 5
    D. 3 and 6
    C
  126. To ensure that the ramp locks are engaged after closing the cargo ramp via the auxiliary system
    handpump under normal conditions, select
    position _____ on the manual control valve and operate the handpump to ______ psi.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 4; 3000
    B. 5; 1000
    C. 4; 1000
    D. 5; 3000
    D
  127. The auxiliary hydraulic system hand pump provides an optional source of hydraulic pressure for ground or in-flight operation.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    A
  128. The aux hydraulic system handpump may be used to provide pressure for _________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. emergency extension of the flaps
    B. landing gear emergency extension
    C. normal brakes
    D. None of the above
    B
  129. A(n) ____________ is provided in the manual flap gearbox to prevent overloading of the drive system.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. mechanical stop
    B. electrical stop
    C. torque stop
    D. slip clutch
    D
  130. Where is the crew entrance door jettison handle located?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. forward of the flight deck ladder
    B. ceiling of the flight deck, slightly aft of
    the pilot's seat
    C. immediately aft of FS 245
    D. There are no provisions to jettison the door
    B
  131. For manual hand pump operation of the ramp and door, move the aux pump switch to the _______
    position.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. off
    B. neutral
    C. on
    D. power
    A
  132. Prior to raising the ramp, ensure that _______________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. all locks are retracted
    B. ramp seal area is clear
    C. floor mounted seats are stowed
    D. Both A &B
    D
  133. The paratroop door pip pin _________ be installed in the locked position with the door closed except on the ground to secure the aircraft.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. will not
    B. will
    C. may be
    D. is required to
    A
  134. Do not exceed ______ knots with the ramp open, or _____ knots with the ramp up and locked and the aft cargo door open.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 150; 185
    B. 185; 150
    C. 150; 150
    D. 185; 185
    A
  135. What are the airspeed limitations for the air deflector door and the troop door?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 150; 185
    B. 185; 150
    C. 150; 150
    D. 185; 185
    C
  136. Do not use the ramp actuators for loading or unloading unless the ramp actuators have been
    _______.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. pressurized (500 psi minimum)
    B. pressurized (1,000 psi minimum)
    C. preloaded (500 psi minimum)
    D. preloaded (1,000 psi minimum)
    C
  137. The landing gear emergency engaging handles should be pulled on pre-flights to ensure proper operation.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. True
    B. False
    B
  138. Landing gear handcranks are located __________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. forward of the left and right main landing gear wheel wells
    B. on the outside aft wall of the BMC
    C. forward of the left main landing gear wheel well only
    D. in the miscellaneous storage bin
    A
  139. The main landing gear emergency extension wrench is located______.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. forward of the booster hydraulic system
    B. on the outside aft wall of the BMC
    C. forward of the utility hydraulic system
    D. in the miscellaneous storage bin
    B
  140. The nose landing gear emergency release handle is located ___________________.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. between the co-pilot's seat and the control pedestal
    B. on the utility hydraulic panel
    C. forward of the nose landing gear inspection window
    D. aft of the crew entrance door
    A
  141. The manual shutoff T-handle in the BMC must be in the ______ position, anytime air conditioning equipment is connected to the aircraft, to alleviate an ECS 2 Hot light condition.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. up and locked
    B. down and unlocked
    C. up and unlocked
    D. down and locked
    D
  142. The manual shut-off T-handle in the BMC provides a means of shutting off airflow to the __.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. BMC and CRC
    B. gun deck and the BMC
    C. gun deck and the aft scanner
    D. gun deck and the CRC
    C
  143. The two-position (WARMER, COOLER) momentary toggle switch on the aft scanner’s light control panel varies_________ to provide the aft scanner with independent temperature regulation.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. the ratio of hot air only
    B. the ratio of cold air only
    C. the ratio of hot air to cold air
    D. None of the above
    C
  144. There are ____ general purpose first aid kits installed on the aircraft, ____ of which are on the flight deck.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 5;1
    B. 7;2
    C. 7;1
    D. 5;2
    D
  145. How many combat first aid kits are installed on the AC-130U?
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    B
  146. A total of _____ Halon 1211 fire extinguishers are provided on the aircraft for fighting interior fires.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 5
    B. 6
    C. 7
    D. 8
    B
  147. Where is the dry chemical fire extinguisher located?
    Ref:(A)U-1
    A. on the backside of FS 245
    B. inside the CRC
    C. between the 40MM and 105MM guns
    D. aft of the 105MM gun
    C
  148. The dry chemical fire extinguisher is particularly effective against _______ fires.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. liquid oxygen
    B. munitions
    C. combustible metals
    D. paper
    B
  149. When using a Halon-charged fire extinguisher, position the extinguisher vertically and direct the agent ______.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. toward the center of the fire
    B. at the base of the fire
    C. at the top of the fire
    D. in a random pattern
    B
  150. There is/are ______ hand axe(s) provided on the aircraft.
    Ref: (A)U-1
    A. 3
    B. 4
    C. 5
    D. 6
    A

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