Nutrition Midterm

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Nutrition Midterm
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2011-06-27 14:57:07
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    1. When people eat foods of their family's geographical location, their eating patterns are being influenced by
      a. habit.
      b. personal preference.
      c. ethnic heritage or tradition.
      d. physical appearance.
      e. nutrition.
    c. ethnic heritage or tradition.
    1. People who eat foods to relieve boredom or calm anxiety are eating for reasons of
      a. nutrition.
      b. values.
      c. economy.
      d. emotional comfort.
      e. availability.
    d. emotional comfort.
    1. The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey for 2001-2002 describes several additional reasons that may affect our food choices. Which of the following reasons would you expect to be covered?

    a. Pregnancy status
    b. Gender
    c. Marital Status
    d. Poverty Income Ratio
    e. All of the above
    e. All of the above
    1. Rhonda's desire for apple pie and ice cream reflects which of the following reasons for eating?

    A. Availability
    B. Emotional comfort
    C. Ethnic heritage
    D. Gender
    E. Nutritional value
    B. Emotional comfort
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
    1. Immediate changes that Rhonda should make in her life to combat her sedentary lifestyle and obesity include

    A. giving up walking from the train and getting a car so she would get home more quickly.
    B. switching to beef frozen dinners from chicken, to reduce calories.
    C. getting more exercise and reducing fat and sugar in her diet.
    D. staying at work longer so she will not eat ice cream before bed.
    C. getting more exercise and reducing fat and sugar in her diet.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
    1. All of the following are classified as macronutrients except

    A. carbohydrate.
    B. fat.
    C. protein.
    D. calcium.
    D. calcium.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
    1. By chemical analysis, which nutrient is present in the highest amounts in most foods?

    A. Fat
    B. Water
    C. Protein
    D. Carbohydrate
    B. Water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
    1. Which of the following is an organic nutrient?
      a. Fat
      b. Water
      c. Oxygen
      d. Calcium
    a. Fat
    1. Gram for gram, which of the following provides the most energy to do work in our bodies?
      a. Carbohydrates
      b. Alcohol
      c. Proteins
      d. Fat
    d. Fat
    1. What is the kcalorie value of a meal supplying 110 g of carbohydrates, 25 g of protein, 20 g of fat, and 5 g of alcohol?
    a. 160
    b. 345
    c. 560
    d. 755
    d. 755
    1. The muscular contractions that propel food through the digestive tract are called

    A. peristalsis.
    B. hydrolysis.
    C. denaturation.
    D. defecation.
    A. peristalsis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
    1. Which sphincter muscle is situated between the stomach and the small intestine?
      a. Cardiac sphincter
      b. Pyloric sphincter
      c. Ileocecal valve
      d. Rectal sphincter
    b. Pyloric sphincter

    1. The partially digested food that enters the small intestine from the stomach is called
    a. micelle.
    b. bile.
    c. chime.
    d. feces.
    c. chime.
    1. A periodic squeezing of the intestines is
      a. peristalsis.
      b. diverticulosis.
      c. segmentation.
      d. defecation.
    a. peristalsis.
    1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of organs in the digestive system?
    a. Mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
    b. Anus, mouth, small intestine, stomach, large intestine
    c. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, anus, large intestine
    d. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus
    d. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus
    1. The main function of bile is to
    a. emulsify fats.
    b. stimulate the activity of protein digestive enzymes.
    c. neutralize the contents of the intestine.
    d. increase peristalsis.
    a. emulsify fats.
    1. Which of the following organs does NOT secrete digestive enzymes?
    a. Liver
    b. Stomach
    c. Pancreas
    d. Salivary glands
    a. Liver
    1. What substance protects the stomach lining from damage due to digestive juices?
    a. Water
    b. Mucus
    c. Pepsinogen
    d. Dietary fats
    b. Mucus
    1. Why is there little or no digestion of starch in the stomach?
      a. Mucus inhibits starch breakdown.
      b. Stomach enzymes are dysfunctional.
      c. Starch should not be eaten with protein.
      d. Salivary enzymes do not work in an acid environment.
    d. Salivary enzymes do not work in an acid environment.
    1. The purpose of bicarbonate in the digestive process is to
      a. raise the pH of chime.
      b. lower the pH of chime.
      c. hydrolyze large protein molecules.
      d. provide a little fizz in your life.
    a. raise the pH of chime.

    1. Absorption of nutrients by intestinal cells occurs by all of the following mechanisms except


    A. transmigration.
    B. facilitated diffusion.
    C. active transport.
    D. diffusion.
    A. transmigration.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
    1. To assist the process of digestion and absorption, it is usually best to
      a. take enzyme pills or powder periodically so the system can rest and rejuvenate.
      b. eat several snacks per day so the system is not overwhelmed all at once.
      c. avoid eating meat and fruit at the same meal to prevent competition.
      d. combine different food types to enhance the absorption process.
    d. combine different food types to enhance the absorption process.
  1. When alcohol and barbiturates are ingested and absorbed into the blood stream, where do they go first?
    A. Kidneys
    B. Heart
    C. Liver
    D. Spleen
    C. Liver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. If you were tracing the various products of digestion to absorption and transport in the body, and you focused on the fat soluble vitamins and large fats, which circulatory system would you be monitoring?
    A. Mesenteric system
    B. Vascular (blood) system
    C. Lymphatic system
    D. Enterohepatic system
    C. Lymphatic system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The presence of fat in the intestines stimulates cells of the intestinal wall to release
    A. lipase.
    B. secretin.
    C. cholecystokinin.
    D. gastrin.
    C. cholecystokinin.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. What substance controls the release of bile into the small intestines?
    A. Secretin
    B. Gastric-inhibitory peptide
    C. Gastrin
    D. Cholecystokinin
    D. Cholecystokinin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. In which of the following would you almost always find sufficient amounts of carbohydrates?
    A. Animal products
    B. Plant foods
    C. Protein-rich foods
    D. Health foods
    B. Plant foods
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following is not a simple carbohydrate?
    A. Starches
    B. White sugar
    C. Disaccharides
    D. Monosaccharides
    A. Starches
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which of the following is NOT a true characteristic of glucose?
    A. Glucose is sweeter tasting than sucrose.
    B. It is part of a sucrose molecule.
    C. It is a monosaccharide.
    D. It is soluble in water.
    A. Glucose is sweeter tasting than sucrose.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
    1. Which of the following is a part of maltose, sucrose and lactose?
      A. Glucose
      B. Sucrose

    C. Galactose
    D. Fructose
    A. Glucose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together?
    A. Condensation
    B. Absorption
    C. Hydrolysis
    D. Mediation
    A. Condensation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. What is the name of the animal polysaccharide composed of glucose subunits?
    A. Glucogon
    B. Fibrinogen
    C. Glycogen
    D. Dextrin
    C. Glycogen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. What are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose and lignin?
    A. Artificial sweeteners
    B. Starches
    C. Sugar alcohols
    D. Fibers
    D. Fibers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
    1. Which of the following plays a major role in the breakdown of certain types of dietary fiber in the large intestines?
      A. Pancreatic juice
      B. Colonic cells
      C. Bacteria

    D. Villi membrane solvents
    C. Bacteria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Glycogen is stored mainly in which of the following tissues?
    A. Stomach and intestine
    B. Muscle and liver
    C. Brain and red blood cells
    D. Pancreas and kidneys
    B. Muscle and liver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the following is a characteristic of dietary fiber?
    A. Causes diverticulosis
    B. Usually found in high fat foods
    C. Raises blood cholesterol levels
    D. Classified according to solubility in water
    D. Classified according to solubility in water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which of the following enzymes does NOT act on simple sugars?
    A. Sucrase
    B. Lactase
    C. Maltase
    D. Amylase
    D. Amylase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The role of the liver in monosaccharide absorption is to convert
    A. glucose to fructose.
    B. sucrose to glycogen.
    C. maltose to fructose.
    D. fructose to glucose.
    D. fructose to glucose.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. All of the following are symptoms of lactose intolerance except
    A. diarrhea.
    B. constipation.
    C. nausea.
    D. cramping.
    B. constipation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which of the following ingredients listed on food labels would be acceptable to the person who is highly intolerant to lactose in the diet?
    A. Whey
    B. Casein
    C. Dextrins
    D. Milk solids
    C. Dextrins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following is a characteristic of yogurt?
    A. It is poorly tolerated in lactose-intolerant people.
    B. Bacteria in the product produce lactase.
    C. There are only trace amounts of lactose present.
    D. The lactose content is about one-half that of milk.
    B. Bacteria in the product produce lactase.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. What is the primary function of insulin?
    A. Stimulates glycogen breakdown
    B. Stimulates intestinal carbohydrate absorption
    C. Lowers blood glucose levels
    D. Raises blood glucose levels
    C. Lowers blood glucose levels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Which is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration?
    A. Liver
    B. Pancreas
    C. Muscle
    D. Brain
    B. Pancreas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. When you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose concentration?
    A. Secretin
    B. Glucosine
    C. Insulin
    D. Epinephrine
    D. Epinephrine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Type 2 diabetes is also known as
    A. anti-glycemic intolerance.
    B. insulin-dependent diabetes.
    C. adult-onset diabetes.
    D. prediabetes.
    C. adult-onset diabetes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which of the following is best known to result from (not caused by) the regular ingestion of sugar?
    A. Diabetes
    B. Cardiovascular disease
    C. Dental caries
    D. Ulcers
    C. Dental caries
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. What is the predominant sweetener used in formulating beverages?
    A. High-fructose corn syrup
    B. Glucose
    C. Invert sugar
    D. Sucrose
    A. High-fructose corn syrup
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

    1. Which of the following is among food intake recommendations for reducing the incidence of dental caries when the diet contains sugary foods?


    A. Eat dried fruits in place of whole fruits.
    B. Sip a sugary soft drink slowly rather than quickly.
    C. Eat sugary foods separate from meals.
    D. Eat a sugary snack all at one time rather than in parts throughout the day.
    D. Eat a sugary snack all at one time rather than in parts throughout the day.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. What is the name of the sweetener consisting of a mixture of glucose and fructose formed by chemical hydrolysis of sucrose?
    A. Molassas
    B. High-fructose syrup
    C. Invert sugar
    D. Turbinado sugar
    C. Invert sugar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. What is stevia?
    A. An inhibitor of lactase enzyme activity
    B. An herb-derived sweetener
    C. A poorly digested polysaccharide
    D. An FDA-approved sugar alcohol
    B. An herb-derived sweetener
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. What is the chemical composition of fats?
    A. Hexose polymers
    B. Combinations of long chain fatty acids
    C. Fatty acids and glycerol
    D. Glycogen granules
    C. Fatty acids and glycerol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Most fats are a mixture of monounsaturated, saturated, and polyunsaturated fats. Given each of the following choices, pick the one that would give you the least amount of saturated fat.







































































    Butter
    or Cottonseed oil
    Peanut oil or Safflower oil
    Canola oil or Olive oil
    Corn oil or Cottonseed oil
































































  28. Butter
  29. or Cottonseed oil
    Peanut oil or Safflower oil
    Canola oil or Olive oil
    Corn oil or Cottonseed oil
  30. Which of the following would you choose to give you the most healthful polyunsaturated omega-3 fats?
    A. Corn oil
    B. Butter
    C. Canola oil
    D. Sunflower oil
    C. Canola oil
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of
    A. amino acids.
    B. double bonds.
    C. peptide linkages.
    D. saccharide units.
    B. double bonds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Of the following foods, which has the highest percentage of its fat in saturated form?
    A. Coconut
    B. Beef tallow
    C. Butter
    D. Soybean
    A. Coconut
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis?
    A. Stomach
    B. Large Intestine
    C. Small Intestine
    D. Mouth
    C. Small Intestine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. d. Large IntestinWhat is the storage site of bile?
    A. Gallbladder
    B. Intestinal epithelial cells
    C. Liver
    D. Pancreas
    A. Gallbladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. In the digestion of fats, emulsifiers function as
    A. detergents.
    B. chylomicrons.
    C. enzymes.
    D. hormones.
    A. detergents.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
    1. Which of the following is characteristic of the lipase enzyme?
      a. Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes most dietary triglycerides completely to glycerol and free fatty acids.
      b. Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays a significant role in fat digestion in infants.
      c. Gastric lipase plays a significant role in fat digestion in adults.
      d. Intestinal mucosal lipase is responsible for most dietary fat digestion.
    b. Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays a significant role in fat digestion in infants.
  36. In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high-density lipoprotein contains
    A. more cholesterol.
    B. less protein.
    C. less lipid.
    D. more carbohydrate.
    C. less lipid.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which of the following lipids is an essential nutrient?
    A. Lecithin
    B. Stearic acid
    C. Linoleic acid
    D. Cholesterol
    C. Linoleic acid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. A deficiency of omega-3 fatty acids may be associated with
    A. pancreatic cancer.
    B. intestinal villi blockage.
    C. stroke.
    D. depression.
    D. depression.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. What parts of the body will be the first to show the negative effects of fasting?
    A. Brain and red blood cells
    B. Kidneys and Spleen
    C. Liver and small intestine
    D. Stomach and heart tissue
    A. Brain and red blood cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Approximately what percentage of the body's energy needs at rest is supplied by fat?
    A. 40
    B. 5
    C. 25
    D. 60
    D. 60
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which of the following presents the greatest danger to rising blood cholesterol?
    A. The amount of saturated fat in food
    B. The amount of cholesterol in food
    C. The amount of water consumed each day
    D. The amount of exercise performed each day
    A. The amount of saturated fat in food
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. The results of blood tests that reveal a person's total cholesterol and triglycerides are called a
    A. personal lipids count.
    B. circulating fat count.
    C. degenerative disease assessment.
    D. lipid profile.
    D. lipid profile.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Approximately how many kcalories are contained in a pound of body fat?
    A. 2,500
    B. 4,500
    C. 3,500
    D. 1,000
    C. 3,500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. As a percentage of daily energy intake, what is the recommended range for the essential fatty acids?
    A. 12 - 19
    B. 5.6 - 11.2
    C. 2.5 - 5.5
    D. 20 - 35
    B. 5.6 - 11.2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. A major feature of the Mediterranean diet is liberal amounts of
    A. fortified butter.
    B. eggs.
    C. olive oil.
    D. lean meat.
    C. olive oil.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. For most adults, what is the recommended minimum amount of fat that should be consumed, as a percentage of total energy intake?
    A. 5
    B. 20
    C. 15
    D. 35
    B. 20
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Which of the following is a feature of fat in the diet of athletes?
    A. Diets with at least 10% total kcalories from fat are able to provide the recommended amounts of micronutrients.
    B. Optimal performance is found with a high carbohydrate, 15% total fat kcalories diet.
    C. Greater endurance is found on a 50% fat diet than on a 10% fat diet.
    D. A minimum of 75% fat energy in the diet is needed by athletes.
    C. Greater endurance is found on a 50% fat diet than on a 10% fat diet.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. What element is found in proteins but NOT in carbohydrates and fats?
    A. Nitrogen
    B. Carbon
    C. Oxygen
    D. Calcium
    A. Nitrogen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. What is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein?
    A. Number of side chains in the protein
    B. Order of amino acids in the peptide chain
    C. Order of only the essential amino acids in the protein
    D. Folding arrangement of the peptide chain
    B. Order of amino acids in the peptide chain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of a protein chain?
    A. Digestion
    B. Hydrogenation
    C. Denaturation
    D. Condensation
    C. Denaturation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Approximately how many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins?
    A. 5
    B. 10
    C. 20
    D. 35
    C. 20
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. What is the process that results in the hardening of an egg when it is exposed to heat?
    A. Solidification
    B. Denaturation
    C. Protein interaction
    D. Condensation
    B. Denaturation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Upon eating a hamburger, in what organ is the hydrolysis of protein begun?
    A. Large intestine
    B. Small intestine
    C. Stomach
    D. Mouth
    C. Stomach
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. What digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid?
    A. Intestinal peptidase
    B. Transaminase
    C. Pancreatic protease
    D. Pepsin
    D. Pepsin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. In which organ is pepsin active?
    A. Stomach
    B. Pancreas
    C. Large intestine
    D. Small intestine
    A. Stomach
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Which of the following describes the structure of pepsin?
    A. Lipid
    B. Protein
    C. Nucleic acid
    D. Carbohydrate
    B. Protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
    1. In relation to protein synthesis, the role of DNA in the nucleus is to
      A. assemble amino acids into the right order directly.
      B. make transfer RNA which carries the DNA code into the cytoplasm.
      C. make messenger RNA as a translation of the DNA code.
      D. make the amino acids necessary for synthesizing a protein.
    C. make messenger RNA as a translation of the DNA code.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The physical site where amino acids are sequenced in the cell is
    A. mitochondria membranes in the cytoplasm.
    B. single strand of DNA in the nucleus.
    C. ribosome in the cytoplasm.
    D. nuclear membrane.
    C. ribosome in the cytoplasm.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Which of the following is a condition resulting from an incorrect amino acid sequence in hemoglobin?
    A. Turner's syndrome
    B. Down's syndrome
    C. Fragile-X syndrome
    D. Sickle-cell anemia
    D. Sickle-cell anemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Which of the following best describes the structure of messenger RNA?
    A. It is a nucleic acid copy of nuclear DNA.
    B. It is a complete carbohydrate chain.
    C. It is an essential nutrient in all cells.
    D. It is a complex protein.
    A. It is a nucleic acid copy of nuclear DNA.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. The carrier molecules of amino acids found in the cytoplasm are
    A. tRNA molecules.
    B. DNA from the nucleus.
    C. amino acids from the cytoplasm.
    D. mRNA molecules.
    A. tRNA molecules.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which of the following is a characteristic of hormones?
    A. Act as messenger molecules
    B. Act as buffers in the bloodstream
    C. Coordinate visual response
    D. Inactivate bacteria
    A. Act as messenger molecules
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. What help does a buffer perform?
    A. Facilitates chemical reactions
    B. Helps protect against plaque buildup
    C. Helps maintain a constant pH
    D. Helps emulsify fats
    C. Helps maintain a constant pH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Which of the following are proteins that inactivate foreign bacteria and viruses?
    A. Antibodies
    B. Hormones
    C. Enzymes
    D. Collagen
    A. Antibodies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which of the following is involved in the clotting of blood?
    A. Collagen
    B. Fibrin
    C. Transferring
    D. Opsin
    B. Fibrin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Which of the following describes the structure of an antibody?
    A. Large protein molecule
    B. Small nucleic acid
    C. Tripeptide
    D. Large carbohydrate chain
    A. Large protein molecule
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. What is the fate of excess dietary protein?
    A. After absorption, the extra amino acids will be rapidly degraded.
    B. After absorption, extra proteins will be synthesized and stored for use when protein intake returns to normal.
    C. Digestion will be decreased by 30 - 60%, resulting in less absorption.
    D. After absorption, the liver will store the extra amino acids.
    A. After absorption, the extra amino acids will be rapidly degraded.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action?
    A. Protein synthesis will be limited.
    B. Proteins will be made but they will lack that particular amino acid.
    C. Body cells will synthesize it.
    D. Health will not be affected as long as other nutrients are adequate.
    A. Protein synthesis will be limited.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. What is complementary protein nutrition?
    A. A body process involving synthesis of crucial proteins from amino acids made available by breakdown of storage proteins.
    B. A dietary program involving consumption of vegetable and animal proteins on alternating days.
    C. A technique developed specifically for the elderly that involves optimizing protein intake and energy intake.
    D. A strategy of combining plant proteins in the same meal to improve the balance of essential amino acids.
    D. A strategy of combining plant proteins in the same meal to improve the balance of essential amino acids.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Which of the following food proteins has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body?
    A. Rice
    B. Gelatin
    C. Corn
    D. Egg
    D. Egg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. What is the most likely explanation for the fatty liver that develops from protein deficiency?
    A. Inability of the liver to synthesize lipoproteins for fat export
    B. Increased uptake of circulating fats
    C. Inability of adipose tissue to remove circulating fats
    D. Increased absorption of dietary fats
    A. Inability of the liver to synthesize lipoproteins for fat export
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. All of the following are advantages of vegetarian diets EXCEPT
    A. vitamin B12 intake is higher.
    B. fiber content is higher.
    C. vitamins A and C are found in generous quantities.
    D. fat content is lower.
    A. vitamin B12 intake is higher.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Which of the following are allowed in the diet of a lactovegetarian?
    A. Eggs and plant foods only
    B. Plant foods only
    C. Milk products and plant foods only
    D. Meat, eggs, and plant foods only
    C. Milk products and plant foods only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Which of the following ingredients found on a food label is a protein?
    A. Tofu
    B. BHT
    C. Corn starch
    D. Diglycerides
    A. Tofu
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Textured vegetable protein is usually made of
    A. fish protein.
    B. bean plus cheese proteins.
    C. bean plus rice proteins.
    D. soy protein.
    D. soy protein.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. In general, a newborn infant is able to thrive during the early months by ingesting only breast milk and a source of
    A. calcium.
    B. iron.
    C. vitamin D.
    D. vitamin C.
    C. vitamin D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Which of the following is a feature of catabolic reactions?
    A. Involve the release of energy
    B. Involve consumption of energy
    C. Occur only during loss of body weight
    D. Occur only in the mitochondria
    A. Involve the release of energy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. What is the major energy carrier molecule in most cells?
    A. Pyruvate
    B. Glucose
    C. A kcalorie
    D. ATP
    D. ATP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Which of the following metabolic reactions occurs when a cell uses energy?
    A. ADP gains a phosphate group and becomes ATP.
    B. ADP releases a phosphate group and becomes ATP.
    C. ATP releases a phosphate group and becomes ADP.
    D. ATP gains a phosphate group and becomes ADP.
    C. ATP releases a phosphate group and becomes ADP.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. In the adult body, food energy not stored as fat or glycogen is lost as
    A. electromagnetic radiation.
    B. carbon dioxide.
    C. heat.
    D. photons.
    C. heat.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. What is the approximate percent efficiency of conversion of food energy to ATP energy in the body?
    A. 99
    B. 40
    C. 60
    D. 85
    B. 40
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. Glycolysis is the conversion of
    A. glucose to glycogen.
    B. glycogen to fat.
    C. glucose to pyruvate.
    D. glycogen to protein.
    C. glucose to pyruvate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of glycolysis?
    A. It generates ATP.
    B. It generates two molecules of pyruvate for each molecule of glucose.
    C. It occurs in the absence of oxygen.
    D. It is irreversible.
    D. It is irreversible.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. When a person is performing intense physical exercise and begins to feel fatigue and a burning pain in the muscles, it is most likely due to the muscles accumulation of
    A. citric acid.
    B. ammonia.
    C. lactic acid.
    D. pyruvic acid.
    C. lactic acid.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Which of the following outlines the overall sequence of events in the complete oxidation of glucose?
    A. TCA cycle, electron transport chain, anaerobic respiration
    B. Electron transport chain, TCA cycle, Cori cycle
    C. Glycolysis, TCA cycle, electron transport chain
    D. Cori cycle, TCA cycle, glycolysis
    C. Glycolysis, TCA cycle, electron transport chain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Which of the following products is NOT generated via TCA cycle or electron transport chain?
    A. Ammonia
    B. Energy
    C. Water
    D. Carbon dioxide
    A. Ammonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Which of the following cannot be used to make body proteins?
    A. Glucose
    B. Fatty acids
    C. Amino acids
    D. Glycerol
    B. Fatty acids
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose?
    A. Amino acids
    B. Fatty acids
    C. Acetyl-CoA
    D. Carbon dioxide
    A. Amino acids
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group?
    A. Excreted as urea
    B. Burned for energy
    C. Stored in the liver
    D. Converted to glucose
    A. Excreted as urea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. The body's need for water increases on a diet high in
    A. unsaturated fat.
    B. saturated fat.
    C. protein.
    D. carbohydrate.
    C. protein.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Which of the following is not a possible fate of metabolized glucose?
    A. Muscle glycogen
    B. Acetyl CoA
    C. Urea
    D. Amino acids
    C. Urea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Which of the following is a feature of the metabolism of surplus dietary fat?
    A. Excess fat is almost all stored.
    B. Excess fat promotes increased fat oxidation.
    C. Conversion of excess fat to storage fat is inefficient.
    D. Excess fat spares breakdown of body proteins
    A. Excess fat is almost all stored.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. After the first day or so of fasting, which of the following is most depleted in the body?
    A. Fatty acids
    B. Triglycerides
    C. Glycogen
    D. Amino acids
    C. Glycogen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. During the first few days of a fast, what energy source provides about 90% of the glucose needed to fuel the body?
    A. Glycogen
    B. Protein
    C. Ketones
    D. Triglycerides
    B. Protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Which of the following is a feature of ketosis?
    A. Occurs when fats are partially oxidized
    B. Results from excess carbohydrate in the diet
    C. Occurs from lack of protein in the diet
    D. Results from excess acetoacetate in the diet
    C. Occurs from lack of protein in the diet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. A person with fruity odor on the breath demonstrates evidence of metabolic
    A. anaerobic breakdown.
    B. ketosis.
    C. alkalosis.
    D. transamination.
    B. ketosis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Which organ is first to absorb alcohol after taking a drink?
    A. Large intestine
    B. Stomach
    C. Small intestine
    D. Colon
    B. Stomach
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. What is the primary organ that oxidizes alcohol for fuel?
    A. Digestive tract
    B. Pancreas
    C. Brain
    D. Liver
    D. Liver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Which of the following is characteristic of alcohol absorption?
    A. It is increased from the GI tract by high-fat snacks.
    B. It is increased about 20% on an empty stomach.
    C. It is lower in women than in men of the same body weight.
    D. It is increased from the GI tract by carbohydrate snacks.
    B. It is increased about 20% on an empty stomach.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. What is the sequence of stages that brings about advanced liver disease caused by chronic alcohol toxicity?
    A. Cirrhosis, fat accumulation, fibrosis
    B. Fat accumulation, fibrosis, cirrhosis
    C. Fibrosis, gout, cirrhosis
    D. Fibrosis, cirrhosis, fat depletion
    B. Fat accumulation, fibrosis, cirrhosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Which of the following is/are best suited for slowing alcohol absorption?
    A. Caffeine drinks
    B. Carbohydrate snacks
    C. Not eating
    D. Protein snacks
    B. Carbohydrate snacks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. What instrument is used to measure the energy content of foods?
    A. Energy chamber
    B. Exothermic meter
    C. Bomb calorimeter
    D. Combustion chamber
    C. Bomb calorimeter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. External cues that may cause an obese person to respond helplessly to food typically include all of the following except
    A. TV commercials.
    B. outdoor exercises.
    C. availability of food.
    D. "time of day" patterns.
    B. outdoor exercises.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Among the following, which has the greatest power to suppress hunger?
    A. Apples
    B. Peanuts
    C. Doughnuts
    D. Potato chips
    A. Apples
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Which of the following may be used to calculate the amount of energy expended by the body?
    A. Intestinal gas expelled
    B. Total air exchanged
    C. Oxygen consumed
    D. Carbon dioxide consumed
    C. Oxygen consumed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. If a dancer and a typist are the same height and have the exact same body build, the dancer will be heavier because she has
    A. stronger bones.
    B. more muscle mass.
    C. more body fat.
    D. stronger muscles.
    B. more muscle mass.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. If a normal 60 kg person has a resting energy expenditure of 1300 kcal/day, about how many total kilocalories are needed to sustain four hours of studying?
    A. 350
    B. 50
    C. 120
    D. 260
    A. 350
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. An index of a person's weight in relation to height is called
    A. body mass index.
    B. desirable body weight index.
    C. ideal body weight index.
    D. height to weight index.
    A. body mass index.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. What is the weight classification assigned both to young women with 30% body fat and young men with 20% body fat?
    A. Normal
    B. Slightly underweight
    C. Mildly overweight
    D. Obese
    A. Normal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Which of the following defines central obesity?
    A. Storage of excess fat around the central part of the body
    B. Accumulation of fat during the mid-years of life
    C. Overfatness due to reliance on high fat foods as a central part of the diet.
    D. Overfatness due to a large number of interacting behavioral problems
    A. Storage of excess fat around the central part of the body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. Research in obese people seems to show that there is no increase in the risks for strokes and hypertension provided that the excess body fat is distributed around the
    A. neck and shoulders.
    B. arms and chest.
    C. stomach.
    D. hips and thighs.
    D. hips and thighs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. Current dietary trends in fat and/or energy intake for adult Americans include all of the following except
    A. our actual fat intake has increased by 3 g per day.
    B. our higher prevalence of obesity is due primarily to excess carbohydrate intake.
    C. our average daily energy intake has risen by 200 kcalories.
    D. our fat intake has decreased from 35% to 33% of daily energy intake.
    B. our higher prevalence of obesity is due primarily to excess carbohydrate intake.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. All of the following are features of high-protein diets except
    A. they advise dieters to not count kcalories.
    B. they have a high satiety index.
    C. they typically recommend intakes of 800 to 1200 kcal/day.
    D. they provide for long-term weight maintenance.
    D. they provide for long-term weight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. What is the primary reason for the weight loss seen on common high-protein diets?
    A. A fall in the rate of de novo lipogenesis
    B. Low blood insulin levels which favors fat oxidation
    C. Low energy intake
    D. Liberal intake of low glycemic index foods
    C. Low energy intake
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which of the following is characteristic of dieting and ketosis?
    A. Body fat losses on a ketogenic diet are initially high but then taper off after one week.
    B. There is a strong relationship between ketosis and weight loss.
    C. Ketogenic diets typically reduce urine production.
    D. Body fat losses on a ketogenic diet are not higher than on other diets of equivalent kcalories.
    D. Body fat losses on a ketogenic diet are not higher than on other diets of equivalent kcalories.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of typical low-carbohydrate diets?
    A. Nausea
    B. Constipation
    C. Fatigue
    D. High blood pressure
    D. High blood pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Adverse effects on organs such as the liver from the presence of excess body fat is known as
    A. set point susceptibility.
    B. lipotoxicity.
    C. hyperplastic lipase.
    D. hyper-responsive ghrelin.
    B. lipotoxicity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Which of the following is a feature of leptin?
    A. It is usually deficient in obese people.
    B. It acts primarily on the brain.
    C. It is secreted by the brain and acts on fat cells.
    D. It is an enzyme.
    B. It acts primarily on the brain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. In comparison with non-obese people, obese people have a lower
    A. physical activity level.
    B. metabolic response to exercise.
    C. thermic effect of food.
    D. basal metabolic rate.
    A. physical activity level
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. What is the most important single contributor to the obesity problem in the United States?
    A. Physical inactivity
    B. Overabundance of foods
    C. Environmental factors
    D. High-fat diets
    A. Physical inactivity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. What is the primary action of orlistat, a weight loss drug?
    A. It reduces taste sensation.
    B. It inhibits pancreatic lipase.
    C. It alters circulating leptin concentrations.
    D. It inhibits lipoprotein lipase.
    B. It inhibits pancreatic lipase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. All of the following are sensible guidelines for diet plans except
    A. consume low-fat foods regularly.
    B. include vegetables, fruits, and grains as the mainstay of the diet.
    C. adjust energy intake downward as weight loss progresses.
    D. eat rapidly to avoid prolonged contact with food.
    D. eat rapidly to avoid prolonged contact with food.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. What is the best approach to weight loss?
    A. Avoid foods containing carbohydrates
    B. Eliminate all fats from the diet and decrease water intake
    C. Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure
    D. Greatly increase protein intake to prevent body protein loss
    C. Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. In a weight reduction regimen, the most realistic time frame for losing 10% of initial body weight is
    A. 6 weeks.
    B. 1 year.
    C. 3 months.
    D. 6 months.
    D. 6 months.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. The feeling of satiety from weight-loss diets is best promoted by diets rich in
    A. short-chain fats.
    B. complex carbohydrates.
    C. simple carbohydrates.
    D. fat.
    B. complex carbohydrates.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Which of the following is NOT an adaptive response to regular physical exercise?
    A. It increases energy expenditure in the postexercise period.
    B. It stimulates digestive function in the postexercise period.
    C. It triggers release of lipids from adipocytes from all over the body.
    D. It curbs appetite.
    B. It stimulates digestive function in the postexercise period.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. An important aid in any weight-loss diet program is to
    A. speed up thyroid activity with metabolic enhancers.
    B. develop ketosis by maintaining carbohydrate intake as low as possible.
    C. increase physical activity.
    D. decrease water intake.
    C. increase physical activity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. Anorexia nervosa is most common in
    A. male adolescents.
    B. female adolescents.
    C. male elderly.
    D. female executives.
    B. female adolescents.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. What term is given to a female athlete who has an eating disorder and develops amenorrhea and osteoporosis?
    A. Nonadaptable training syndrome
    B. High stress tertiary disorder
    C. Female athlete triad
    D. Triathlete medical disorder
    C. Female athlete triad
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. Which of the following is a characteristic of people with anorexia nervosa?
    A. During initial treatment, metabolism slows and appetite increases but thereafter subsides.
    B. In those who are treated, many relapse into abnormal eating patterns.
    C. Most are aware of their condition and seek treatment.
    D. Fewer than 200 women die each year from the disease.
    B. In those who are treated, many relapse into abnormal eating patterns.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. Typical foods chosen by a person with bulimia nervosa during a binge include all of the following except
    A. bread.
    B. cookies.
    C. vegetables.
    D. ice cream.
    C. vegetables
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. Which of the following would NOT be a diet recommendation for a person with bulimia nervosa?
    A. Avoid "finger" foods to minimize overeating
    B. Avoid skipping meals
    C. Eat cold foods to stimulate satiety
    D. Include fiber-rich foods
    C. Eat cold foods to stimulate satiety
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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