The flashcards below were created by user
toddshonts
on FreezingBlue Flashcards.
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Are the Cargo Compartments Ventilated
No
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Are the Cargo Compartments Heated
Indirectly through the E/E bay
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Total Gal of Potable Water
47 gal.
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Is the water tank heated
No only the fill and drain lines are heated
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Is the water tank drainable
Yes, but only by maintenance. The drain at the service port only drains the fill lines.
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How is the water tank pressurized?
Bleed air
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Will the water tank pressurize with the service door open?
No
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How many slides are installed on the aircraft?
4
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How many slides will automatically inflate.
1 (Aft tail cone)
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How many batteries are installed
2 wired in series for a 28 volt system
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Minimum Battery Voltage?
- 25 Volts
- ( charger not operating)
- 25 to 37.5 Volts
- (charger operating)
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How many Generators installed?
3
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Generator Voltage Range
115 +or- 8
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Generator Frequency Range
400 +or- 20
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Max Generator Load 5 Min?
1.0 to 1.5
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Max Generator Load 5 Sec?
1.5 to 2.0
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What Electrical bus is always powered?
Direct
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Turning on the Bat Switch activates what busses?
- Battery Bus
- DC Transfer Bus
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Emergency PWR Switch "ON" Activates what Busses?
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When Activated, How long will the EMR Lights operate?
About 15 Min.
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When Activated, how long will EMR Power operate?
About 30 Min.
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What Items are powered by EMR Power?
- 1. EMR AC and DC Busses
- 2. Capt Flt Instruments
- 3. FO's RDMI
- 4. Cockpit Floodlights
- 5. #1 Nav/Com
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What is required for the Battery Charger to Operate?
- BEG
- Battery switch ON
- EMR Power Switch OFF
- GND Service Bus Powered
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Where does the APU normally draw fuel?
R Main Tank
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Min load up time for APU (bleed Air)?
60 sec.
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What is normal Shut Down time of the APU?
60 sec.
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What conditions will Auto Shutdown the APU?
- FLOFire
- Low oil pressure
- Overspeed
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Max Elec Load APU
(Ground)
1.25 GND
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Max Elec Load APU
(Flt up to 250)
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Max Elec Load APU
Above 250
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APU MAX START Temp
760 (30 sec)
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APU MAX LOADED Temp
630 Continuous
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APU MAX TRANSIENT Temp
663 Transient
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APU MAX ALT for BATTERY START
300
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APU Max ALT for Windmill Start
240
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What Causes the automatic illumination of the Emergency Evacuation Lights?
Loss of the Emergency DC Bus
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What is the purpose of the AC Crosstie Lockout?
- PIPPrevents Parallel
- Isolates system
- Powers other side
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AC Crosstie Lockout
How many Resets on Ground?
1 Gnd
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AC Crosstie Lockout How many Resets in flight?
None in flight
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Maximum Difference Between Inverters?
.3
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What is the purpose of the pneumatic X-feed valves?
Isolate the left and right sides
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Where does the pneumatic gage get its power?
AC Emergency Bus
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Minimum PSI required to operate the Anti-Ice System?
20
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What is the purpose of the 13th stage augmentation valve?
Operates when 8th stage PSI is to low
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When is the Augmentation valves temp sensitive?
With Anti-Ice "ON"
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When are the Augmentation valves pressure sensitive?
A/C only
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What causes the "Tail Comp Temp High" light to illuminate?
Sensors detect temp in tail compartment exceeds 180F
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Which air cycle machine directs air to the cockpit?
Left
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Where do the heat exchangers draw air in flight?
Tail scoop
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Where do the Heat Exchangers draw air on the ground?
- L tail scoop
- R Louvers in the tail compartment
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What 2 valves close when an overtemp condition exists in either Supply Duct, Turbine Vent, or Compressor Exhaust?
- 1. PSI Regulator & Shutoff Valve
- 2. Flow Control Valve
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What pneumatic conditions would cause cooling air to not pass through the Heat Exchanger?
- 1. (GND) failure of a blower fan
- 2 (Flt) Blockage of inlet scoop causing no air flow through the sense line
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How do you know the pack fans are operating prior to flight?
Large spike on generator load meters when pack switches are activated.
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What is the purpose of the AIR Conditioning Auto Shut Off System?
Shuts both systems down in the event of an engine failure on takeoff.
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What is the purpose of the AIR COND SHUTOFF OVRD switch position?
Allow crews to restore operation of pack on good engine
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What is the purpose of the RADIO RACK FAN SWITCH?
- Allows for smoke removal from the cockpit (venturi)
- Allows for cooling of the radio rack and heating of forward cargo compartment (fan)
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What is the indication of a pack failure in flight?
Reduced air flow and possible illumination of the flow light
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What is the indication of a pack failure on the ground?
No PSI on gauge
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What will cause the RADIO FAN OFF light to illuminate?
- (GND) Primary fan failed
- (FLT) Primary and Stby Fan failed
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When does the Standby Fan operate in the air?
Failure of the primary fan
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When does the Instrument Cooling Fan operate?
Only on the ground
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Max Relief Differential Pressure?
8.32
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Max Differential Pressure?
8.07
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Max Normal Operating Differential Pressure?
7.77
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How is Negative Relief Pressure provided?
Door seals and Negative PSI Relief Valve on aft pressure bulkhead
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When does the red CABIN ALT light illuminate?
When cabin exceeds approx 9500'
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What is the purpose of the Hyd Transfer Pump?
Transfers energy from one side to the other in the event of a pump failure
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What powers the Hyd Transfer Pump?
Hydraulic pressure
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What is the OVRD position on the Aux Hyd Pump used for?
To force pump operation in the event of a thermal shutdown
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What is the minimum Hyd Quantity for dispatch?
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What items are powered by the right Hyd Sys?
- GRROSGear
- Right Reverser
- Rudder
- Outboard Spoilers
- Stairs Aft
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What is powered by the Left Hyd Sys?
- LIELeft Reverser
- Inboard Flt Spoilers
- Elevator Augmentor
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What items are powered by both Hyd Systems?
- Big Fat Sally Smells Nasty
- Brakes
- Flaps
- Slats
- Spoilers Ground
- Nose Wheel Steering
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What will cause an auto shutdown of the Hyd Transfer Pump?
Either Hyd Sys less than 1.3qts
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Where is the Hyd Sys pressure measured?
Downstream of the Engine Hyd Pumps
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What causes the L or R HYD PRESS LOW lights to illuminate?
Pressure below 900 psi +or- 100psi at the spoilers
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How many Hyd pumps can operate the right system?
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How many Hyd pumps can operate the left system?
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What is the purpose of the spoiler bypass valve in the wheel well?
Allows maintenance to deactivate spoiler or entire Hyd system for safety.
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What cockpit indication would you see with the Spoiler Bypass Valve in the OFF position?
L or R HYD PRESS LOW light illuminated with a normal Hyd PSI gauge reading
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What cockpit indication would you see with the Spoiler Bypass Valve in the SYSTEM BYPASS position?
L or R HYD PRESS LOW light illuminated and a zero pressure on the L or R Hyd Pressure Gauge
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Maximum Landing Gear Ext speed?
300 kts .70M
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Max LDG Gear Retraction speed?
250 kts
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Max Nose Wheel steering angle?
- 82 degrees
- 74 with one Hyd sys inop
- 17 with rudder pedals
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What temperature illuminates the brake OVHT light?
305 C
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Do not set the park brake above what temp?
250 C
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What is the max brake temp for T/O?
205 C
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How many Fire Detection Loops are installed on the aircraft?
6
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How can the Fire Bell be silenced?
- 1. Pushing the BELL OFF light
- 2. Pulling the respective FIRE SHUTOFF HANDLE
- 3. Cooling the loop
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Will heating of one fire detection loop cause the aural fire warning to sound?
- No
- BOTH loops must sense a fire
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What indication will show if heat is applied to only one LOOP?
- MASTER CAUTION light
- and
- illumination of a LOOP light
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Will a MASTER CAUTION light illuminate with an APU FIRE?
- Yes
- MASTER CAUTION
- MASTER WARNING
- APU FIRE
- Aural Warning
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How can you cancel an Aural Warning?
You can't
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How many time will the APU Aural Warning sound?
- 3 CAWS (Cockpit)
- Exterior ground APU FIRE WARING until the fire loops have cooled
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What 14 lights illuminate during the fire test?
- 2 Fire Lights
- 2 MASTER CAUTION lights
- 2 MASTER WARNING light
- 6 Loop lights
- 1 APU FIRE light
- 1 FIRE DETECTION LOOP light
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What 6 items occur when the FIRE HANDLE is pulled?
- 1. Silence Bell
- 2. Trip Gen Field Relay
- 3. Close Hyd Shutoff Valve
- 4. Close Fuel Shutoff Valve
- 5. Close Pneumatic Crossfeed Valve
- 6. Positions Fire Handle for rotation and discharge Agent
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How many Fire Bottles are provided for the Cargo Compartment?
2
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Will both bottles discharge agent immediately?
- NO
- #1 bottle has 15 sec discharge time / lasts about 15 min
- #2 bottle is discharged 15 min after #1 bottle and releases agent for about 45 min
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What is the purpose of the AUTO position of the cargo fire Function selector?
It automatically arms the appropriate squibs when a fire is detected
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What is the difference between a steady and a flashing light on the Instrument Comparator Panel?
- Flashing indicates failure
- Steady indicates a difference between signals
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What does a steady MONITOR light on the Instrument Comparator Panel indicate?
Fail of the Monitoring System
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What does the illumination of the AP TRIM light on the Instrument Comparator Panel indicate?
Auto Pilot has not trimmed the aircraft for the correct flight configuration.
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What 4 Channels record cockpit conversation?
- 1. CA Microphone
- 2. FO
- 3. Area Microphone
- 4. Service Interphone
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How many modes consist of the GPWS
- 1. T/O "Don't Sink"
- 2. Enroute/Descent "Terrain"
- 3. Decent "Sink Rate"
- 4. Pattern "Too Low Flaps"
- 5. Pattern "Too Low Gear"
- 6. Approach "Glide Slope"
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When should "CLMP" annunciate on takeoff?
Above 60 kts
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What is the meaning of "ALPHA SPD" display on the FMA?
The selected speed is below maneuvering speed
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What is the purpose of the TRI?
"Thrust Rating Indicator"
Calculates and displays maximum EPR values
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What is the purpose of the ART system?
Provides a slight reduction in T/O thrust and automatically increases engine thrust if an engine fails during takeoff.
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What is the Normal Trust Rating
JT8D-219
21,000 lbs
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What is the Maximum Thrust Rating
JT8D-219
21,700 lbs
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What 4 conditions must be met to illuminate the ART green READY light?
- 1. Aircraft on the ground more than 2 min
- 2. Slats not retracted
- 3. Both engines running
- 4. ART SWITCH in AUTO
- (self test successful)
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When is the ART system ARMED?
When throttles are advanced beyond 64% N1
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When does the ART system activate?
- 1. Sense of electrical failure of the DFGC
- 2. Difference of 30% N1
- 3. Windshear
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When is the ART system Deactivated?
- 1. Slats are retracted
- 2. Throttles reduced to less than 49% N1
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What is the biggest difference between ATR and ART systems?
When ATR is activated the throttles actually move.
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When is the ATR system armed?
- 1. Auto throttles must be engaged
- 2. Flight director takeoff mode selected
- 3. Engine failure occurs above 350' radio altitude
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When will the ATR system Activate?
- 1. Difference in EPR of .25 or 7% N1
- 2. Vertical speed decreases to less than zero for 5 sec
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What 2 indications are there that ATR has activated?
- 1. Throttles move
- 2. FMA changes from CLMP to EPR/GA
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What causes the ENGING SYNC light to illuminate?
Engine Sync on with Landing Gear extended
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Can the engines be sync'd with the ENG SYNC switch in the OFF position?
- Yes
- With the auto throttles engaged
- (EPR sync)
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Will the ENG SYNC operate in N1 or N2 mode with the Auto Throttles engaged?
- No
- (EPR sync is on with the Auto Throttles engaged, you can't have to modes of engine sync)
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How does the Auto Throttles sync the engines?
- EPR sync
- (Through the DFGC)
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What is the Ignition limitation in the OVRD position?
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What is the Min Pneumatic Pressure for engine start/
- 36
- -1 psi for each 1000' Abv SL
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What does the illumination of the L or R REVERSER ACCUMULATOR LOW light indicate?
- Thrust reverse accumulator pressure is low
- (below 1450 psi)
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Why is the use of Reverse EPR above 1.4 EPR not recommended?
Loss of Rudder effectiveness by blanking out the tail
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Pulling the FIRE HANDLE will shut off fuel at what location?
Wheel Well
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Will pushing the FIRE HANDLE back into the panel reopen the Fuel Shutoff Valve?
Yes
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Are the Fire Handles connected mechanically to the Pneumatic Cross Feed Handles?
Yes
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If a Fire Handle has been pulled will opening the ASSOCIATED Crossfeed Handle reopen the Fuel Valve?
Yes
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What is Each Main Fuel Tank capacity
9266 lbs
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What is the Center Tank capacity?
20,596 lbs
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Can fuel be transferred tank to tank?
- Yes
- (on the ground through the defueling panel)
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What is the Normal indication during a Fuel Indicator Test?
- 3000 all Tanks
- 9000 total fuel display
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What is indicated by a reading of 9999 in any tank?
Tank Probe Fault
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Where does the DC START PUMP draw fuel?
Right Main Tank
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Why does fuel feed from the Center Tank prior to the Wing Tanks?
CTR FWD and CTR AFT Fuel Pumps in connected in series providing about 28 psi
- +15 x 2 each pump
- - 2 poppet ck valves
- =28psi
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What is the normal PSI of the Fuel Pumps
15 psi
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What causes the L or R INLET FUEL PRESS LOW light to illuminate?
Fuel pressure at the engine less than 5 psi
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What powers the
LEFT AFT
CTR FWD
RIGHT FWD
fuel pumps?
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What powers the
LEFT FWD
CTR AFT
fuel pumps
Right AC Bus
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What powers the
RIGHT AFT
fuel pump?
Ground Service Bus
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When should FUEL HEAT be used?
- Prior to T/O with FUEL TEMP below 0
- When L or R FUEL FILTER PRESS DROP light illuminates.
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What will cause the L or R FUEL FILTER PRESS DROP light to illuminate?
When differential pressure across the filter exceeds 5 psi
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How is Fuel Heated?
13th Stage Bleed Air
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What indications verifies activation of Fuel Heat?
- L or R FUEL HEAT light on
- Rise in Fuel Temp
- Rise in Oil Temp
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What is the Max Oil Temp?
- 135 C Continuous
- 165 C 15 min
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What is the Minimum Engine Oil Press in Flight?
35 psi
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What is normal Engine Oil Press?
40 to 55 psi
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What is the minimum Oil Quantity for dispatch?
12 qts
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What will cause the L or R OIL STRAINER CLOGGING light to illuminate?
More than 35 psi differential exists across the filter
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What will cause the L or R OIL PRESSURE LOW light to illuminate?
Engine oil pressure is less than 35 psi
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What items are DE-ICED by Bleed Air?
- Wings
- Tail
- Strakes
- Tail Ram Scoop
- Engines
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What Windows are electrically deiced?
3 Forward
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What windows are Electrically ANTI FOGGED?
- Eye Brow
- Sliding Side Windows
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When must Engine Anti-Ice be ON?
When visible moisture is present and OAT is below 10 C
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What engine component De-Ices the Inlet Guide Vanes and the Bullet?
8th Stage Bleed Air
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What engine component De-Ices the Engine Cowlings?
13th Stage Bleed Air
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What causes the amber L or R ENGINE VALVE light illuminate?
The position of at least 1 of the 3 engine anti-ice valves is in disagreement with ENG HEAT Switch
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Do the Pneumatic Crossfeed Valves need to be open to de-ice the Engines?
No
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How long is Bleed Air supplied to the Wing Leading Edges and Strakes during AIR FOIL anti-icing?
15 min
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How long is Bleed Air supplied to the Tail during AIR FOIL anti-icing?
2.5 min
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When is Bleed Air supplied to the Tail Scoop during AIR FOIL anti-icing?
All the time when ON
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Prior to landing when must the Tail be de-iced?
1 min prior to selection of landing flaps
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What Causes the ICE PROTECT SUPPLY PRESS HI light to illuminate?
More than 23 PSI in the airfoil anti-ice system
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What cause the AIRFOIL ICE PROT PRESS ABNORMAL light to illuminate?
- Air not going were it should or
- Air going were is should not or
- There is a press imbalance in system
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What does the NO MODE light on the TRI indicate?
- No Mode selected or
- There is a bleed problem with anti-ice system
- (Airfoil operating W/O engine anti-ice ON)
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When does the WARM light illuminate on the Over Wing Heater System?
When the heater blanket reaches 40 deg F
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Can the Over Wing Heater System be used to augment aircraft de-icing?
- No
- It must be off during de-icing procedures
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If the Over Wing Heater System is INOP, when must a tactile inspection of the wings be accomplished?
- 1. When ambient temp is less than 10 C and visible moisture is present or high humidity exists
- 2. When frost or ice is present on the lower surface of the wing
- 3. After completion of de-icing
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Ailerons ______ bussed together
Ailerons are bused together
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Elevators ______ bussed together.
Elevator are not bussed together
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What is the purpose of the Elevator Control Tab?
Displaces the elevator for pitch control
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What is the purpose of the Elevator Gear TAB?
- Assists the Control Tab when the elevator is positioned more than 10 degrees nose up
- (connected by rod to stabilizer)
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What is the purpose of the Elevator Anti Float Tab?
Assist in positioning the elevator when displaced more than 25 degrees nose up.
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When will the Flight Spoilers operate?
Whenever the control wheels are displaced more than 5 degrees
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What system operates the Outboard Flight Spoilers?
Right Hydraulic System
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What system operates the Inboard Flight Spoilers?
Left Hydraulic System
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What system operates the Ground Spoilers?
L and R HYD Systems
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Where is the L or R HYD PRESS LOW light sensed?
At the Spoilers
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What is the purpose of the Elevator Augmentor?
Allows the Aircraft to recover from a deep stall
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When will the Elevator Augmenter system operate?
When the Control Tabs are displaced more than 10 degrees nose down
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What is indicated when the Blue ELEVATOR POWER light is illuminated?
Hydraulic power is being delivered to the Elevator Augmentation System
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When does the Mach trim Compensator operate?
At speed above .80M
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What is the speed restriction if the Mach Trim Compensator fails?
.78M
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How many Trim Motors are installed?
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What is the purpose of dual Trim Switches?
One releases the Trim Brake the other operates the Trim Motor
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How to you arrest a Main Trim Runaway?
Activate the Primary Stab Trim Stop Switch
If the above action fails to stop the runaway, pull the 3 Main Trim CB's on the L GEN Bus
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Use of what Trim will cause the Autopilot to Disconnect?
Primary Trim
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What Hyd System operates the Rudder?
Right Hyd System
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Are Yaw Damper effects felt on the Rudder Pedals?
No
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Are Rudder Trim effects felt on the Rudder Pedals?
Yes
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What is the purpose of the Rudder Restriction System?
Restricts Rudder movement in high speed regimes, preventing structural damage.
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What Landing Restrictions apply if the blue RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED light is NOT illuminated?
- Max X-wind 12kts
- Min App Spd 135kts
- Why?
- In the event of a single engine missed approach
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When should the Blue RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED light be extinguished?
At speeds above 181 kts
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When should the Blue RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED light be ILLUMINATED?
At speeds below 144 kts
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What Hyd System powers the Slats?
Both Hyd Systems
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What are the Max Speeds for Mid / Full Slat Extension?
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What is indicated by the TAKEOFF Slat Light?
- Mid Slat (Flaps < 14)
- Full Slat (Flaps 15 to 24)
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What is indicated by the DISAGREE Slat Light?
Disagreement in Slat and Handle position
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What is indicated by the AUTO Slat Light?
- Autoslat extension for Mid-Sealed to Full Extend during a stall condition
- (Slats must be in Mid-sealed for Autoslats to extend to Full Extend)
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What is indicated by the LAND Slat Light?
- Slats in Full Extend Position
- (Flaps 28 or 40)
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What is indicated by the AUTOSLAT FAIL LIGHT?
A portion of the Autoslat System in inoperative
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How many Stall Computers are installed?
2
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How many Stall Computers are required for T/O?
2
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How to you Deactivate the Yaw Damper?
Move the YAW DAMP Switch to OVRD
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Will the Yaw Damper operate with the switch in the OFF position?
- Yes
- (With the Autopilot ON)
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When will the Slat Overspeed Warning sound?
When the aircraft exceeds 280 with the slats extended
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Will the Overspeed Warning operate with the Slats extended beyond Mid Seal Position?
No
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