MD80 Study Questions

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  1. Wingspan
    108 Ft
  2. Length
    147 Ft.
  3. Tail Hight
    30 Ft.
  4. Min Turn Radius
    • 94.3 Ft
    • 125 Recommended
  5. Are the Cargo Compartments Ventilated
  6. Are the Cargo Compartments Heated
    Indirectly through the E/E bay
  7. Total Gal of Potable Water
    47 gal.
  8. Is the water tank heated
    No only the fill and drain lines are heated
  9. Is the water tank drainable
    Yes, but only by maintenance. The drain at the service port only drains the fill lines.
  10. How is the water tank pressurized?
    Bleed air
  11. Will the water tank pressurize with the service door open?
  12. Number or total exits
  13. How many slides are installed on the aircraft?
  14. How many slides will automatically inflate.
    1 (Aft tail cone)
  15. How many batteries are installed
    2 wired in series for a 28 volt system
  16. Minimum Battery Voltage?
    • 25 Volts
    • ( charger not operating)

    • 25 to 37.5 Volts
    • (charger operating)
  17. How many Generators installed?
  18. Generator Voltage Range
    115 +or- 8
  19. Generator Frequency Range
    400 +or- 20
  20. Max Generator Load 5 Min?
    1.0 to 1.5
  21. Max Generator Load 5 Sec?
    1.5 to 2.0
  22. What Electrical bus is always powered?
  23. Turning on the Bat Switch activates what busses?
    • Battery Bus
    • DC Transfer Bus
  24. Emergency PWR Switch "ON" Activates what Busses?
    • EMR AC Bus
    • EMR DC Bus
  25. When Activated, How long will the EMR Lights operate?
    About 15 Min.
  26. When Activated, how long will EMR Power operate?
    About 30 Min.
  27. What Items are powered by EMR Power?
    • 1. EMR AC and DC Busses
    • 2. Capt Flt Instruments
    • 3. FO's RDMI
    • 4. Cockpit Floodlights
    • 5. #1 Nav/Com
  28. What is required for the Battery Charger to Operate?
    • BEG
    • Battery switch ON
    • EMR Power Switch OFF
    • GND Service Bus Powered
  29. Where does the APU normally draw fuel?
    R Main Tank
  30. Min load up time for APU (bleed Air)?
    60 sec.
  31. What is normal Shut Down time of the APU?
    60 sec.
  32. What conditions will Auto Shutdown the APU?
    • FLO
    • Fire
    • Low oil pressure
    • Overspeed
  33. Max Elec Load APU
    1.25 GND
  34. Max Elec Load APU
    (Flt up to 250)
    • 1.0
    • Flight up to 250
  35. Max Elec Load APU
    Above 250
    • .7
    • Above 250
  36. APU MAX START Temp
    760 (30 sec)
    630 Continuous
    663 Transient
  39. APU MAX RPM?
  40. APU MAX ALT for use.
  42. APU Max ALT for Windmill Start
  43. Max CSD Outlet temp?
  44. Max CSD temp Rise
  45. What Causes the automatic illumination of the Emergency Evacuation Lights?
    Loss of the Emergency DC Bus
  46. What is the purpose of the AC Crosstie Lockout?
    • PIP
    • Prevents Parallel
    • Isolates system
    • Powers other side
  47. AC Crosstie Lockout
    How many Resets on Ground?
    1 Gnd
  48. AC Crosstie Lockout How many Resets in flight?
    None in flight
  49. Maximum Difference Between Inverters?
  50. What is the purpose of the pneumatic X-feed valves?
    Isolate the left and right sides
  51. Where does the pneumatic gage get its power?
    AC Emergency Bus
  52. Minimum PSI required to operate the Anti-Ice System?
  53. What is the purpose of the 13th stage augmentation valve?
    Operates when 8th stage PSI is to low
  54. When is the Augmentation valves temp sensitive?
    With Anti-Ice "ON"
  55. When are the Augmentation valves pressure sensitive?
    A/C only
  56. What causes the "Tail Comp Temp High" light to illuminate?
    Sensors detect temp in tail compartment exceeds 180F
  57. Which air cycle machine directs air to the cockpit?
  58. Where do the heat exchangers draw air in flight?
    Tail scoop
  59. Where do the Heat Exchangers draw air on the ground?
    • L tail scoop
    • R Louvers in the tail compartment
  60. What 2 valves close when an overtemp condition exists in either Supply Duct, Turbine Vent, or Compressor Exhaust?
    • 1. PSI Regulator & Shutoff Valve
    • 2. Flow Control Valve
  61. What pneumatic conditions would cause cooling air to not pass through the Heat Exchanger?
    • 1. (GND) failure of a blower fan
    • 2 (Flt) Blockage of inlet scoop causing no air flow through the sense line
  62. How do you know the pack fans are operating prior to flight?
    Large spike on generator load meters when pack switches are activated.
  63. What is the purpose of the AIR Conditioning Auto Shut Off System?
    Shuts both systems down in the event of an engine failure on takeoff.
  64. What is the purpose of the AIR COND SHUTOFF OVRD switch position?
    Allow crews to restore operation of pack on good engine
  65. What is the purpose of the RADIO RACK FAN SWITCH?
    • Allows for smoke removal from the cockpit (venturi)
    • Allows for cooling of the radio rack and heating of forward cargo compartment (fan)
  66. What is the indication of a pack failure in flight?
    Reduced air flow and possible illumination of the flow light
  67. What is the indication of a pack failure on the ground?
    No PSI on gauge
  68. What will cause the RADIO FAN OFF light to illuminate?
    • (GND) Primary fan failed
    • (FLT) Primary and Stby Fan failed
  69. When does the Standby Fan operate in the air?
    Failure of the primary fan
  70. When does the Instrument Cooling Fan operate?
    Only on the ground
  71. Max Relief Differential Pressure?
  72. Max Differential Pressure?
  73. Max Normal Operating Differential Pressure?
  74. How is Negative Relief Pressure provided?
    Door seals and Negative PSI Relief Valve on aft pressure bulkhead
  75. When does the red CABIN ALT light illuminate?
    When cabin exceeds approx 9500'
  76. What is the purpose of the Hyd Transfer Pump?
    Transfers energy from one side to the other in the event of a pump failure
  77. What powers the Hyd Transfer Pump?
    Hydraulic pressure
  78. What is the OVRD position on the Aux Hyd Pump used for?
    To force pump operation in the event of a thermal shutdown
  79. What is the minimum Hyd Quantity for dispatch?
    • L sys 7 qts
    • R sys 8 qts
  80. What items are powered by the right Hyd Sys?
    • GRROS
    • Gear
    • Right Reverser
    • Rudder
    • Outboard Spoilers
    • Stairs Aft
  81. What is powered by the Left Hyd Sys?
    • LIE
    • Left Reverser
    • Inboard Flt Spoilers
    • Elevator Augmentor
  82. What items are powered by both Hyd Systems?
    • Big Fat Sally Smells Nasty
    • Brakes
    • Flaps
    • Slats
    • Spoilers Ground
    • Nose Wheel Steering
  83. What will cause an auto shutdown of the Hyd Transfer Pump?
    Either Hyd Sys less than 1.3qts
  84. Where is the Hyd Sys pressure measured?
    Downstream of the Engine Hyd Pumps
  85. What causes the L or R HYD PRESS LOW lights to illuminate?
    Pressure below 900 psi +or- 100psi at the spoilers
  86. How many Hyd pumps can operate the right system?
    • 3
    • Engine
    • Aux
    • transfer
  87. How many Hyd pumps can operate the left system?
    • 2
    • Engine
    • Transfer
  88. What is the purpose of the spoiler bypass valve in the wheel well?
    Allows maintenance to deactivate spoiler or entire Hyd system for safety.
  89. What cockpit indication would you see with the Spoiler Bypass Valve in the OFF position?
    L or R HYD PRESS LOW light illuminated with a normal Hyd PSI gauge reading
  90. What cockpit indication would you see with the Spoiler Bypass Valve in the SYSTEM BYPASS position?
    L or R HYD PRESS LOW light illuminated and a zero pressure on the L or R Hyd Pressure Gauge
  91. Maximum Landing Gear Ext speed?
    300 kts .70M
  92. Max LDG Gear Retraction speed?
    250 kts
  93. Max Nose Wheel steering angle?
    • 82 degrees
    • 74 with one Hyd sys inop
    • 17 with rudder pedals
  94. What temperature illuminates the brake OVHT light?
    305 C
  95. Do not set the park brake above what temp?
    250 C
  96. What is the max brake temp for T/O?
    205 C
  97. How many Fire Detection Loops are installed on the aircraft?
  98. How many Fire Bottles?
  99. How can the Fire Bell be silenced?
    • 1. Pushing the BELL OFF light
    • 2. Pulling the respective FIRE SHUTOFF HANDLE
    • 3. Cooling the loop
  100. Will heating of one fire detection loop cause the aural fire warning to sound?
    • No
    • BOTH loops must sense a fire
  101. What indication will show if heat is applied to only one LOOP?
    • MASTER CAUTION light
    • and
    • illumination of a LOOP light
  102. Will a MASTER CAUTION light illuminate with an APU FIRE?
    • Yes
    • APU FIRE
    • Aural Warning
  103. How can you cancel an Aural Warning?
    You can't
  104. How many time will the APU Aural Warning sound?
    • 3 CAWS (Cockpit)
    • Exterior ground APU FIRE WARING until the fire loops have cooled
  105. What 14 lights illuminate during the fire test?
    • 2 Fire Lights
    • 2 MASTER CAUTION lights
    • 2 MASTER WARNING light
    • 6 Loop lights
    • 1 APU FIRE light
  106. What 6 items occur when the FIRE HANDLE is pulled?
    • 1. Silence Bell
    • 2. Trip Gen Field Relay
    • 3. Close Hyd Shutoff Valve
    • 4. Close Fuel Shutoff Valve
    • 5. Close Pneumatic Crossfeed Valve
    • 6. Positions Fire Handle for rotation and discharge Agent
  107. How many Fire Bottles are provided for the Cargo Compartment?
  108. Will both bottles discharge agent immediately?
    • NO
    • #1 bottle has 15 sec discharge time / lasts about 15 min
    • #2 bottle is discharged 15 min after #1 bottle and releases agent for about 45 min
  109. What is the purpose of the AUTO position of the cargo fire Function selector?
    It automatically arms the appropriate squibs when a fire is detected
  110. What is the difference between a steady and a flashing light on the Instrument Comparator Panel?
    • Flashing indicates failure
    • Steady indicates a difference between signals
  111. What does a steady MONITOR light on the Instrument Comparator Panel indicate?
    Fail of the Monitoring System
  112. What does the illumination of the AP TRIM light on the Instrument Comparator Panel indicate?
    Auto Pilot has not trimmed the aircraft for the correct flight configuration.
  113. What 4 Channels record cockpit conversation?
    • 1. CA Microphone
    • 2. FO
    • 3. Area Microphone
    • 4. Service Interphone
  114. How many modes consist of the GPWS
    • 1. T/O "Don't Sink"
    • 2. Enroute/Descent "Terrain"
    • 3. Decent "Sink Rate"
    • 4. Pattern "Too Low Flaps"
    • 5. Pattern "Too Low Gear"
    • 6. Approach "Glide Slope"
  115. When should "CLMP" annunciate on takeoff?
    Above 60 kts
  116. What is the meaning of "ALPHA SPD" display on the FMA?
    The selected speed is below maneuvering speed
  117. What is the purpose of the TRI?
    "Thrust Rating Indicator"
    Calculates and displays maximum EPR values
  118. What is the purpose of the ART system?
    Provides a slight reduction in T/O thrust and automatically increases engine thrust if an engine fails during takeoff.
  119. What is the Normal Trust Rating
    21,000 lbs
  120. What is the Maximum Thrust Rating
    21,700 lbs
  121. What 4 conditions must be met to illuminate the ART green READY light?
    • 1. Aircraft on the ground more than 2 min
    • 2. Slats not retracted
    • 3. Both engines running
    • 4. ART SWITCH in AUTO
    • (self test successful)
  122. When is the ART system ARMED?
    When throttles are advanced beyond 64% N1
  123. When does the ART system activate?
    • 1. Sense of electrical failure of the DFGC
    • 2. Difference of 30% N1
    • 3. Windshear
  124. When is the ART system Deactivated?
    • 1. Slats are retracted
    • 2. Throttles reduced to less than 49% N1
  125. What is the biggest difference between ATR and ART systems?
    When ATR is activated the throttles actually move.
  126. When is the ATR system armed?
    • 1. Auto throttles must be engaged
    • 2. Flight director takeoff mode selected
    • 3. Engine failure occurs above 350' radio altitude
  127. When will the ATR system Activate?
    • 1. Difference in EPR of .25 or 7% N1
    • 2. Vertical speed decreases to less than zero for 5 sec
  128. What 2 indications are there that ATR has activated?
    • 1. Throttles move
    • 2. FMA changes from CLMP to EPR/GA
  129. What causes the ENGING SYNC light to illuminate?
    Engine Sync on with Landing Gear extended
  130. Can the engines be sync'd with the ENG SYNC switch in the OFF position?
    • Yes
    • With the auto throttles engaged
    • (EPR sync)
  131. Will the ENG SYNC operate in N1 or N2 mode with the Auto Throttles engaged?
    • No
    • (EPR sync is on with the Auto Throttles engaged, you can't have to modes of engine sync)
  132. How does the Auto Throttles sync the engines?
    • EPR sync
    • (Through the DFGC)
  133. What is the Ignition limitation in the OVRD position?
    • 2 min ON
    • 3 min OFF

    • 2 min ON
    • 23 min OFF
  134. What is the Min Pneumatic Pressure for engine start/
    • 36
    • -1 psi for each 1000' Abv SL
  135. What does the illumination of the L or R REVERSER ACCUMULATOR LOW light indicate?
    • Thrust reverse accumulator pressure is low
    • (below 1450 psi)
  136. Why is the use of Reverse EPR above 1.4 EPR not recommended?
    Loss of Rudder effectiveness by blanking out the tail
  137. Pulling the FIRE HANDLE will shut off fuel at what location?
    Wheel Well
  138. Will pushing the FIRE HANDLE back into the panel reopen the Fuel Shutoff Valve?
  139. Are the Fire Handles connected mechanically to the Pneumatic Cross Feed Handles?
  140. If a Fire Handle has been pulled will opening the ASSOCIATED Crossfeed Handle reopen the Fuel Valve?
  141. What is Each Main Fuel Tank capacity
    9266 lbs
  142. What is the Center Tank capacity?
    20,596 lbs
  143. Can fuel be transferred tank to tank?
    • Yes
    • (on the ground through the defueling panel)
  144. What is the Normal indication during a Fuel Indicator Test?
    • 3000 all Tanks
    • 9000 total fuel display
  145. What is indicated by a reading of 9999 in any tank?
    Tank Probe Fault
  146. Where does the DC START PUMP draw fuel?
    Right Main Tank
  147. Why does fuel feed from the Center Tank prior to the Wing Tanks?
    CTR FWD and CTR AFT Fuel Pumps in connected in series providing about 28 psi

    • +15 x 2 each pump
    • - 2 poppet ck valves
    • =28psi
  148. What is the normal PSI of the Fuel Pumps
    15 psi
  149. What causes the L or R INLET FUEL PRESS LOW light to illuminate?
    Fuel pressure at the engine less than 5 psi
  150. What powers the
    fuel pumps?
    • Left AC bus
    • (lazy L)
  151. What powers the
    fuel pumps
    Right AC Bus
  152. What powers the
    fuel pump?
    Ground Service Bus
  153. When should FUEL HEAT be used?
    • Prior to T/O with FUEL TEMP below 0
    • When L or R FUEL FILTER PRESS DROP light illuminates.
  154. What will cause the L or R FUEL FILTER PRESS DROP light to illuminate?
    When differential pressure across the filter exceeds 5 psi
  155. How is Fuel Heated?
    13th Stage Bleed Air
  156. What indications verifies activation of Fuel Heat?
    • L or R FUEL HEAT light on
    • Rise in Fuel Temp
    • Rise in Oil Temp
  157. What is the Max Oil Temp?
    • 135 C Continuous
    • 165 C 15 min
  158. What is the Minimum Engine Oil Press in Flight?
    35 psi
  159. What is normal Engine Oil Press?
    40 to 55 psi
  160. What is the minimum Oil Quantity for dispatch?
    12 qts
  161. What will cause the L or R OIL STRAINER CLOGGING light to illuminate?
    More than 35 psi differential exists across the filter
  162. What will cause the L or R OIL PRESSURE LOW light to illuminate?
    Engine oil pressure is less than 35 psi
  163. What items are DE-ICED by Bleed Air?
    • Wings
    • Tail
    • Strakes
    • Tail Ram Scoop
    • Engines
  164. What Windows are electrically deiced?
    3 Forward
  165. What windows are Electrically ANTI FOGGED?
    • Eye Brow
    • Sliding Side Windows
  166. When must Engine Anti-Ice be ON?
    When visible moisture is present and OAT is below 10 C
  167. What engine component De-Ices the Inlet Guide Vanes and the Bullet?
    8th Stage Bleed Air
  168. What engine component De-Ices the Engine Cowlings?
    13th Stage Bleed Air
  169. What causes the amber L or R ENGINE VALVE light illuminate?
    The position of at least 1 of the 3 engine anti-ice valves is in disagreement with ENG HEAT Switch
  170. Do the Pneumatic Crossfeed Valves need to be open to de-ice the Engines?
  171. How long is Bleed Air supplied to the Wing Leading Edges and Strakes during AIR FOIL anti-icing?
    15 min
  172. How long is Bleed Air supplied to the Tail during AIR FOIL anti-icing?
    2.5 min
  173. When is Bleed Air supplied to the Tail Scoop during AIR FOIL anti-icing?
    All the time when ON
  174. Prior to landing when must the Tail be de-iced?
    1 min prior to selection of landing flaps
  175. What Causes the ICE PROTECT SUPPLY PRESS HI light to illuminate?
    More than 23 PSI in the airfoil anti-ice system
  176. What cause the AIRFOIL ICE PROT PRESS ABNORMAL light to illuminate?
    • Air not going were it should or
    • Air going were is should not or
    • There is a press imbalance in system
  177. What does the NO MODE light on the TRI indicate?
    • No Mode selected or
    • There is a bleed problem with anti-ice system
    • (Airfoil operating W/O engine anti-ice ON)
  178. When does the WARM light illuminate on the Over Wing Heater System?
    When the heater blanket reaches 40 deg F
  179. Can the Over Wing Heater System be used to augment aircraft de-icing?
    • No
    • It must be off during de-icing procedures
  180. If the Over Wing Heater System is INOP, when must a tactile inspection of the wings be accomplished?
    • 1. When ambient temp is less than 10 C and visible moisture is present or high humidity exists
    • 2. When frost or ice is present on the lower surface of the wing
    • 3. After completion of de-icing
  181. Ailerons ______ bussed together
    Ailerons are bused together
  182. Elevators ______ bussed together.
    Elevator are not bussed together
  183. What is the purpose of the Elevator Control Tab?
    Displaces the elevator for pitch control
  184. What is the purpose of the Elevator Gear TAB?
    • Assists the Control Tab when the elevator is positioned more than 10 degrees nose up
    • (connected by rod to stabilizer)
  185. What is the purpose of the Elevator Anti Float Tab?
    Assist in positioning the elevator when displaced more than 25 degrees nose up.
  186. When will the Flight Spoilers operate?
    Whenever the control wheels are displaced more than 5 degrees
  187. What system operates the Outboard Flight Spoilers?
    Right Hydraulic System
  188. What system operates the Inboard Flight Spoilers?
    Left Hydraulic System
  189. What system operates the Ground Spoilers?
    L and R HYD Systems
  190. Where is the L or R HYD PRESS LOW light sensed?
    At the Spoilers
  191. What is the purpose of the Elevator Augmentor?
    Allows the Aircraft to recover from a deep stall
  192. When will the Elevator Augmenter system operate?
    When the Control Tabs are displaced more than 10 degrees nose down
  193. What is indicated when the Blue ELEVATOR POWER light is illuminated?
    Hydraulic power is being delivered to the Elevator Augmentation System
  194. When does the Mach trim Compensator operate?
    At speed above .80M
  195. What is the speed restriction if the Mach Trim Compensator fails?
  196. How many Trim Motors are installed?
    • 2
    • (Primary and Alternate)
  197. What is the purpose of dual Trim Switches?
    One releases the Trim Brake the other operates the Trim Motor
  198. How to you arrest a Main Trim Runaway?
    Activate the Primary Stab Trim Stop Switch

    If the above action fails to stop the runaway, pull the 3 Main Trim CB's on the L GEN Bus
  199. Use of what Trim will cause the Autopilot to Disconnect?
    Primary Trim
  200. What Hyd System operates the Rudder?
    Right Hyd System
  201. Are Yaw Damper effects felt on the Rudder Pedals?
  202. Are Rudder Trim effects felt on the Rudder Pedals?
  203. What is the purpose of the Rudder Restriction System?
    Restricts Rudder movement in high speed regimes, preventing structural damage.
  204. What Landing Restrictions apply if the blue RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED light is NOT illuminated?
    • Max X-wind 12kts
    • Min App Spd 135kts

    • Why?
    • In the event of a single engine missed approach
  205. When should the Blue RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED light be extinguished?
    At speeds above 181 kts
  206. When should the Blue RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED light be ILLUMINATED?
    At speeds below 144 kts
  207. What Hyd System powers the Slats?
    Both Hyd Systems
  208. What are the Max Speeds for Mid / Full Slat Extension?
    • 240 .57M
    • 280 .57M
  209. What is indicated by the TAKEOFF Slat Light?
    • Mid Slat (Flaps < 14)
    • Full Slat (Flaps 15 to 24)
  210. What is indicated by the DISAGREE Slat Light?
    Disagreement in Slat and Handle position
  211. What is indicated by the AUTO Slat Light?
    • Autoslat extension for Mid-Sealed to Full Extend during a stall condition
    • (Slats must be in Mid-sealed for Autoslats to extend to Full Extend)
  212. What is indicated by the LAND Slat Light?
    • Slats in Full Extend Position
    • (Flaps 28 or 40)
  213. What is indicated by the AUTOSLAT FAIL LIGHT?
    A portion of the Autoslat System in inoperative
  214. How many Stall Computers are installed?
  215. How many Stall Computers are required for T/O?
  216. How to you Deactivate the Yaw Damper?
    Move the YAW DAMP Switch to OVRD
  217. Will the Yaw Damper operate with the switch in the OFF position?
    • Yes
    • (With the Autopilot ON)
  218. When will the Slat Overspeed Warning sound?
    When the aircraft exceeds 280 with the slats extended
  219. Will the Overspeed Warning operate with the Slats extended beyond Mid Seal Position?
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MD80 Study Questions
MD80 Study Questions
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