MD80 Study Questions
Card Set Information
MD80 Study Questions
MD80 Study Questions
MD80 Study Questions
Min Turn Radius
Are the Cargo Compartments Ventilated
Are the Cargo Compartments Heated
Indirectly through the E/E bay
Total Gal of Potable Water
Is the water tank heated
No only the fill and drain lines are heated
Is the water tank drainable
Yes, but only by maintenance. The drain at the service port only drains the fill lines.
How is the water tank pressurized?
Will the water tank pressurize with the service door open?
Number or total exits
How many slides are installed on the aircraft?
How many slides will automatically inflate.
1 (Aft tail cone)
How many batteries are installed
2 wired in series for a 28 volt system
Minimum Battery Voltage?
( charger not operating)
25 to 37.5 Volts
How many Generators installed?
Generator Voltage Range
115 +or- 8
Generator Frequency Range
400 +or- 20
Max Generator Load 5 Min?
1.0 to 1.5
Max Generator Load 5 Sec?
1.5 to 2.0
What Electrical bus is always powered?
Turning on the Bat Switch activates what busses?
DC Transfer Bus
Emergency PWR Switch "ON" Activates what Busses?
EMR AC Bus
EMR DC Bus
When Activated, How long will the EMR Lights operate?
About 15 Min.
When Activated, how long will EMR Power operate?
About 30 Min.
What Items are powered by EMR Power?
1. EMR AC and DC Busses
2. Capt Flt Instruments
3. FO's RDMI
4. Cockpit Floodlights
5. #1 Nav/Com
What is required for the Battery Charger to Operate?
Battery switch ON
EMR Power Switch OFF
GND Service Bus Powered
Where does the APU normally draw fuel?
R Main Tank
Min load up time for APU (bleed Air)?
What is normal Shut Down time of the APU?
What conditions will Auto Shutdown the APU?
Low oil pressure
Max Elec Load APU
Max Elec Load APU
(Flt up to 250)
Flight up to 250
Max Elec Load APU
APU MAX START Temp
760 (30 sec)
APU MAX LOADED Temp
APU MAX TRANSIENT Temp
APU MAX RPM?
APU MAX ALT for use.
APU MAX ALT for BATTERY START
APU Max ALT for Windmill Start
Max CSD Outlet temp?
Max CSD temp Rise
What Causes the automatic illumination of the Emergency Evacuation Lights?
Loss of the Emergency DC Bus
What is the purpose of the AC Crosstie Lockout?
Powers other side
AC Crosstie Lockout
How many Resets on Ground?
AC Crosstie Lockout How many Resets in flight?
None in flight
Maximum Difference Between Inverters?
What is the purpose of the pneumatic X-feed valves?
Isolate the left and right sides
Where does the pneumatic gage get its power?
AC Emergency Bus
Minimum PSI required to operate the Anti-Ice System?
What is the purpose of the 13th stage augmentation valve?
Operates when 8th stage PSI is to low
When is the Augmentation valves temp sensitive?
With Anti-Ice "ON"
When are the Augmentation valves pressure sensitive?
What causes the "Tail Comp Temp High" light to illuminate?
Sensors detect temp in tail compartment exceeds 180F
Which air cycle machine directs air to the cockpit?
Where do the heat exchangers draw air in flight?
Where do the Heat Exchangers draw air on the ground?
L tail scoop
R Louvers in the tail compartment
What 2 valves close when an overtemp condition exists in either Supply Duct, Turbine Vent, or Compressor Exhaust?
1. PSI Regulator & Shutoff Valve
2. Flow Control Valve
What pneumatic conditions would cause cooling air to not pass through the Heat Exchanger?
1. (GND) failure of a blower fan
2 (Flt) Blockage of inlet scoop causing no air flow through the sense line
How do you know the pack fans are operating prior to flight?
Large spike on generator load meters when pack switches are activated.
What is the purpose of the AIR Conditioning Auto Shut Off System?
Shuts both systems down in the event of an engine failure on takeoff.
What is the purpose of the AIR COND SHUTOFF OVRD switch position?
Allow crews to restore operation of pack on good engine
What is the purpose of the RADIO RACK FAN SWITCH?
Allows for smoke removal from the cockpit (venturi)
Allows for cooling of the radio rack and heating of forward cargo compartment (fan)
What is the indication of a pack failure in flight?
Reduced air flow and possible illumination of the flow light
What is the indication of a pack failure on the ground?
No PSI on gauge
What will cause the RADIO FAN OFF light to illuminate?
(GND) Primary fan failed
(FLT) Primary and Stby Fan failed
When does the Standby Fan operate in the air?
Failure of the primary fan
When does the Instrument Cooling Fan operate?
Only on the ground
Max Relief Differential Pressure?
Max Differential Pressure?
Max Normal Operating Differential Pressure?
How is Negative Relief Pressure provided?
Door seals and Negative PSI Relief Valve on aft pressure bulkhead
When does the red CABIN ALT light illuminate?
When cabin exceeds approx 9500'
What is the purpose of the Hyd Transfer Pump?
Transfers energy from one side to the other in the event of a pump failure
What powers the Hyd Transfer Pump?
What is the OVRD position on the Aux Hyd Pump used for?
To force pump operation in the event of a thermal shutdown
What is the minimum Hyd Quantity for dispatch?
L sys 7 qts
R sys 8 qts
What items are powered by the right Hyd Sys?
What is powered by the Left Hyd Sys?
Inboard Flt Spoilers
What items are powered by both Hyd Systems?
Nose Wheel Steering
What will cause an auto shutdown of the Hyd Transfer Pump?
Either Hyd Sys less than 1.3qts
Where is the Hyd Sys pressure measured?
Downstream of the Engine Hyd Pumps
What causes the L or R HYD PRESS LOW lights to illuminate?
Pressure below 900 psi +or- 100psi at the spoilers
How many Hyd pumps can operate the right system?
How many Hyd pumps can operate the left system?
What is the purpose of the spoiler bypass valve in the wheel well?
Allows maintenance to deactivate spoiler or entire Hyd system for safety.
What cockpit indication would you see with the Spoiler Bypass Valve in the OFF position?
L or R HYD PRESS LOW light illuminated with a normal Hyd PSI gauge reading
What cockpit indication would you see with the Spoiler Bypass Valve in the SYSTEM BYPASS position?
L or R HYD PRESS LOW light illuminated and a zero pressure on the L or R Hyd Pressure Gauge
Maximum Landing Gear Ext speed?
300 kts .70M
Max LDG Gear Retraction speed?
Max Nose Wheel steering angle?
74 with one Hyd sys inop
17 with rudder pedals
What temperature illuminates the brake OVHT light?
Do not set the park brake above what temp?
What is the max brake temp for T/O?
How many Fire Detection Loops are installed on the aircraft?
How many Fire Bottles?
How can the Fire Bell be silenced?
1. Pushing the BELL OFF light
2. Pulling the respective FIRE SHUTOFF HANDLE
3. Cooling the loop
Will heating of one fire detection loop cause the aural fire warning to sound?
BOTH loops must sense a fire
What indication will show if heat is applied to only one LOOP?
MASTER CAUTION light
illumination of a LOOP light
Will a MASTER CAUTION light illuminate with an APU FIRE?
How can you cancel an Aural Warning?
How many time will the APU Aural Warning sound?
3 CAWS (Cockpit)
Exterior ground APU FIRE WARING until the fire loops have cooled
What 14 lights illuminate during the fire test?
2 Fire Lights
2 MASTER CAUTION lights
2 MASTER WARNING light
6 Loop lights
1 APU FIRE light
1 FIRE DETECTION LOOP light
What 6 items occur when the FIRE HANDLE is pulled?
1. Silence Bell
2. Trip Gen Field Relay
3. Close Hyd Shutoff Valve
4. Close Fuel Shutoff Valve
5. Close Pneumatic Crossfeed Valve
6. Positions Fire Handle for rotation and discharge Agent
How many Fire Bottles are provided for the Cargo Compartment?
Will both bottles discharge agent immediately?
#1 bottle has 15 sec discharge time / lasts about 15 min
#2 bottle is discharged 15 min after #1 bottle and releases agent for about 45 min
What is the purpose of the AUTO position of the cargo fire Function selector?
It automatically arms the appropriate squibs when a fire is detected
What is the difference between a steady and a flashing light on the Instrument Comparator Panel?
Flashing indicates failure
Steady indicates a difference between signals
What does a steady MONITOR light on the Instrument Comparator Panel indicate?
Fail of the Monitoring System
What does the illumination of the AP TRIM light on the Instrument Comparator Panel indicate?
Auto Pilot has not trimmed the aircraft for the correct flight configuration.
What 4 Channels record cockpit conversation?
1. CA Microphone
3. Area Microphone
4. Service Interphone
How many modes consist of the GPWS
1. T/O "Don't Sink"
2. Enroute/Descent "Terrain"
3. Decent "Sink Rate"
4. Pattern "Too Low Flaps"
5. Pattern "Too Low Gear"
6. Approach "Glide Slope"
When should "CLMP" annunciate on takeoff?
Above 60 kts
What is the meaning of "ALPHA SPD" display on the FMA?
The selected speed is below maneuvering speed
What is the purpose of the TRI?
"Thrust Rating Indicator"
Calculates and displays maximum EPR values
What is the purpose of the ART system?
Provides a slight reduction in T/O thrust and automatically increases engine thrust if an engine fails during takeoff.
What is the Normal Trust Rating
What is the Maximum Thrust Rating
What 4 conditions must be met to illuminate the ART green READY light?
1. Aircraft on the ground more than 2 min
2. Slats not retracted
3. Both engines running
4. ART SWITCH in AUTO
(self test successful)
When is the ART system ARMED?
When throttles are advanced beyond 64% N1
When does the ART system activate?
1. Sense of electrical failure of the DFGC
2. Difference of 30% N1
When is the ART system Deactivated?
1. Slats are retracted
2. Throttles reduced to less than 49% N1
What is the biggest difference between ATR and ART systems?
When ATR is activated the throttles actually move.
When is the ATR system armed?
1. Auto throttles must be engaged
2. Flight director takeoff mode selected
3. Engine failure occurs above 350' radio altitude
When will the ATR system Activate?
1. Difference in EPR of .25 or 7% N1
2. Vertical speed decreases to less than zero for 5 sec
What 2 indications are there that ATR has activated?
1. Throttles move
2. FMA changes from CLMP to EPR/GA
What causes the ENGING SYNC light to illuminate?
Engine Sync on with Landing Gear extended
Can the engines be sync'd with the ENG SYNC switch in the OFF position?
With the auto throttles engaged
Will the ENG SYNC operate in N1 or N2 mode with the Auto Throttles engaged?
(EPR sync is on with the Auto Throttles engaged, you can't have to modes of engine sync)
How does the Auto Throttles sync the engines?
(Through the DFGC)
What is the Ignition limitation in the OVRD position?
2 min ON
3 min OFF
2 min ON
23 min OFF
What is the Min Pneumatic Pressure for engine start/
-1 psi for each 1000' Abv SL
What does the illumination of the L or R REVERSER ACCUMULATOR LOW light indicate?
Thrust reverse accumulator pressure is low
(below 1450 psi)
Why is the use of Reverse EPR above 1.4 EPR not recommended?
Loss of Rudder effectiveness by blanking out the tail
Pulling the FIRE HANDLE will shut off fuel at what location?
Will pushing the FIRE HANDLE back into the panel reopen the Fuel Shutoff Valve?
Are the Fire Handles connected mechanically to the Pneumatic Cross Feed Handles?
If a Fire Handle has been pulled will opening the ASSOCIATED Crossfeed Handle reopen the Fuel Valve?
What is Each Main Fuel Tank capacity
What is the Center Tank capacity?
Can fuel be transferred tank to tank?
(on the ground through the defueling panel)
What is the Normal indication during a Fuel Indicator Test?
3000 all Tanks
9000 total fuel display
What is indicated by a reading of 9999 in any tank?
Tank Probe Fault
Where does the DC START PUMP draw fuel?
Right Main Tank
Why does fuel feed from the Center Tank prior to the Wing Tanks?
CTR FWD and CTR AFT Fuel Pumps in connected in series providing about 28 psi
+15 x 2 each pump
- 2 poppet ck valves
What is the normal PSI of the Fuel Pumps
What causes the L or R INLET FUEL PRESS LOW light to illuminate?
Fuel pressure at the engine less than 5 psi
What powers the
Left AC bus
What powers the
Right AC Bus
What powers the
Ground Service Bus
When should FUEL HEAT be used?
Prior to T/O with FUEL TEMP below 0
When L or R FUEL FILTER PRESS DROP light illuminates.
What will cause the L or R FUEL FILTER PRESS DROP light to illuminate?
When differential pressure across the filter exceeds 5 psi
How is Fuel Heated?
13th Stage Bleed Air
What indications verifies activation of Fuel Heat?
L or R FUEL HEAT light on
Rise in Fuel Temp
Rise in Oil Temp
What is the Max Oil Temp?
135 C Continuous
165 C 15 min
What is the Minimum Engine Oil Press in Flight?
What is normal Engine Oil Press?
40 to 55 psi
What is the minimum Oil Quantity for dispatch?
What will cause the L or R OIL STRAINER CLOGGING light to illuminate?
More than 35 psi differential exists across the filter
What will cause the L or R OIL PRESSURE LOW light to illuminate?
Engine oil pressure is less than 35 psi
What items are DE-ICED by Bleed Air?
Tail Ram Scoop
What Windows are electrically deiced?
What windows are Electrically ANTI FOGGED?
Sliding Side Windows
When must Engine Anti-Ice be ON?
When visible moisture is present and OAT is below 10 C
What engine component De-Ices the Inlet Guide Vanes and the Bullet?
8th Stage Bleed Air
What engine component De-Ices the Engine Cowlings?
13th Stage Bleed Air
What causes the amber L or R ENGINE VALVE light illuminate?
The position of at least 1 of the 3 engine anti-ice valves is in disagreement with ENG HEAT Switch
Do the Pneumatic Crossfeed Valves need to be open to de-ice the Engines?
How long is Bleed Air supplied to the Wing Leading Edges and Strakes during AIR FOIL anti-icing?
How long is Bleed Air supplied to the Tail during AIR FOIL anti-icing?
When is Bleed Air supplied to the Tail Scoop during AIR FOIL anti-icing?
All the time when ON
Prior to landing when must the Tail be de-iced?
1 min prior to selection of landing flaps
What Causes the ICE PROTECT SUPPLY PRESS HI light to illuminate?
More than 23 PSI in the airfoil anti-ice system
What cause the AIRFOIL ICE PROT PRESS ABNORMAL light to illuminate?
Air not going were it should or
Air going were is should not or
There is a press imbalance in system
What does the NO MODE light on the TRI indicate?
No Mode selected or
There is a bleed problem with anti-ice system
(Airfoil operating W/O engine anti-ice ON)
When does the WARM light illuminate on the Over Wing Heater System?
When the heater blanket reaches 40 deg F
Can the Over Wing Heater System be used to augment aircraft de-icing?
It must be off during de-icing procedures
If the Over Wing Heater System is INOP, when must a tactile inspection of the wings be accomplished?
1. When ambient temp is less than 10 C and visible moisture is present or high humidity exists
2. When frost or ice is present on the lower surface of the wing
3. After completion of de-icing
Ailerons ______ bussed together
Ailerons are bused together
Elevators ______ bussed together.
Elevator are not bussed together
What is the purpose of the Elevator Control Tab?
Displaces the elevator for pitch control
What is the purpose of the Elevator Gear TAB?
Assists the Control Tab when the elevator is positioned more than 10 degrees nose up
(connected by rod to stabilizer)
What is the purpose of the Elevator Anti Float Tab?
Assist in positioning the elevator when displaced more than 25 degrees nose up.
When will the Flight Spoilers operate?
Whenever the control wheels are displaced more than 5 degrees
What system operates the Outboard Flight Spoilers?
Right Hydraulic System
What system operates the Inboard Flight Spoilers?
Left Hydraulic System
What system operates the Ground Spoilers?
L and R HYD Systems
Where is the L or R HYD PRESS LOW light sensed?
At the Spoilers
What is the purpose of the Elevator Augmentor?
Allows the Aircraft to recover from a deep stall
When will the Elevator Augmenter system operate?
When the Control Tabs are displaced more than 10 degrees nose down
What is indicated when the Blue ELEVATOR POWER light is illuminated?
Hydraulic power is being delivered to the Elevator Augmentation System
When does the Mach trim Compensator operate?
At speed above .80M
What is the speed restriction if the Mach Trim Compensator fails?
How many Trim Motors are installed?
(Primary and Alternate)
What is the purpose of dual Trim Switches?
One releases the Trim Brake the other operates the Trim Motor
How to you arrest a Main Trim Runaway?
Activate the Primary Stab Trim Stop Switch
If the above action fails to stop the runaway, pull the 3 Main Trim CB's on the L GEN Bus
Use of what Trim will cause the Autopilot to Disconnect?
What Hyd System operates the Rudder?
Right Hyd System
Are Yaw Damper effects felt on the Rudder Pedals?
Are Rudder Trim effects felt on the Rudder Pedals?
What is the purpose of the Rudder Restriction System?
Restricts Rudder movement in high speed regimes, preventing structural damage.
What Landing Restrictions apply if the blue RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED light is NOT illuminated?
Max X-wind 12kts
Min App Spd 135kts
In the event of a single engine missed approach
When should the Blue RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED light be extinguished?
At speeds above 181 kts
When should the Blue RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED light be ILLUMINATED?
At speeds below 144 kts
What Hyd System powers the Slats?
Both Hyd Systems
What are the Max Speeds for Mid / Full Slat Extension?
What is indicated by the TAKEOFF Slat Light?
Mid Slat (Flaps < 14)
Full Slat (Flaps 15 to 24)
What is indicated by the DISAGREE Slat Light?
Disagreement in Slat and Handle position
What is indicated by the AUTO Slat Light?
Autoslat extension for Mid-Sealed to Full Extend during a stall condition
(Slats must be in Mid-sealed for Autoslats to extend to Full Extend)
What is indicated by the LAND Slat Light?
Slats in Full Extend Position
(Flaps 28 or 40)
What is indicated by the AUTOSLAT FAIL LIGHT?
A portion of the Autoslat System in inoperative
How many Stall Computers are installed?
How many Stall Computers are required for T/O?
How to you Deactivate the Yaw Damper?
Move the YAW DAMP Switch to OVRD
Will the Yaw Damper operate with the switch in the OFF position?
(With the Autopilot ON)
When will the Slat Overspeed Warning sound?
When the aircraft exceeds 280 with the slats extended
Will the Overspeed Warning operate with the Slats extended beyond Mid Seal Position?