Misc NBDE Test.txt

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mentaldental
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Misc NBDE Test.txt
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2011-07-24 06:59:55
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NBDE Part
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  1. Arthus Reaction
    Type III Hypersensitivity

    • - antibody-antigen complex after intradermal injection of an antigen
    • - causes local vasculitis bc immune complexes deposit in dermal blood vessels
    • - PMNs come in and result in inflamm response
  2. Which of the following drugs is likely to aid in treating or preventing influenza in high risk subjects during epidemics?A) StilbamidineB) AcyclovirC) AmantadineD) Amphotericin BE) Griseofulvin
    Amantadine
  3. Which of the following positions would yield the smallest measurement of vertical dimension?
    A) Edge-to-edge
    B) Reverse overlap
    C) Retruded contact
    D) Maximum intercuspation
    D) maximum intercuspation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Fordyce's granules/spots in mucous membrane of cheek
    ectopic/aberrant sebaceous glands- departs from normal, but not bad
  5. Moving the mandible from a maximum intercuspal position to a retruded contact position usually results in

    A) all of these.
    B) increased occlusal vertical dimension.
    C) increased horizontal overlap.
    D) decreased vertical overlap.
    A) all of these

    - MIP- gives the lowest value of occlusal vertical dimension bc all cusps are maximully intercuspated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following characterizes the alveolar bone proper of a tooth socket?
    A) It consists of compact bone, shows dark on a radiograph, and contains Sharpey's fibers.
    B) It resorbs when subjected to pressure, and contains numerous openings through which vessels pass.
    C) It contains haversian systems, has collagen fibers in its matrix, and is about 96 per cent inorganic salts.
    D) It serves to attach free gingival periodontal ligament fibers, and is a part of the total tooth attachment apparatus.
    B)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. A broad, flat facet existing on the outer aspect of the mesiolingual cusp of a maxillary first molar, and running in a mesiolingual to distofacial direction, was probably caused by which of the following contacting movements?

    A) ProtrusiveB) WorkingC) Lateral protrusiveD) Non-working
    B) working
  8. Which of the following premolars has a mesial marginal ridge that is more cervically located than its distal marginal ridge?
    A) Mandibular first
    B) Mandibular second
    C) Maxillary second
    D) Maxillary first
    A) mandibular first

    maxillary first has mesial marginal groove and mesial buccal cusp ridge is longer than distal cusp ridge
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. During delayed hypersensitivity reactions, sensitized small lymphocytes produce
    A) leukotrienes.B) lymphokines.C) antibodies.D) none of these.E) histamine.
    B) lymphokines (interleukins= cytokines)

    - leukotrienes are produced by arachidonic acid
  10. Collagen degradation observed in chronic periodontal disease may result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of
    A) Streptococcus faecalis.
    B) Leptothrix buccalis.
    C) Bacteroides species
    D) Veillonella alcalescens.
    E) Entamoeba gingivalis.
    C) bacteroides species
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The spacing between anterior teeth in the primary dentition is most frequently caused by
    A) the growth of the dental arches.
    B) the pressure from succedaneous teeth.
    C) thumb-sucking.
    D) tongue thrusting.
    A)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The first succedaneous tooth to erupt is the
    A) primary mandibular first molar.
    B) primary mandibular central incisor.
    C) maxillary central incisor.
    D) permanent mandibular central incisor.
    E) permanent mandibular first molar.
    D)

    because succedaneous means a permanent tooth that succedes a primary tooth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The cervical line on adult teeth has the greatest depth of curvature toward the incisal on the
    A) facial aspect.
    B) lingual aspect.
    C) mesial aspect.
    D) distal aspect.
    E) dentinoenamel junction.
    C) mesial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Behcet's Syndrome
    • - most common in turkey and Japan
    • - mouth and genital ulcers
    • - inflamed cartilage
    • - vasculitis
  15. Which of the following enteric microorganisms is NOT typically found in normal human intestinal flora?A) Salmonella typhi
    B) Bacteroides fragilis
    C) Escherichia coli
    D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    E) Proteus vulgaris
    Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever; motile
  16. In a longitudinal section of a premolar crown, the enamel is thickest in the
    A) occlusal third.B) cervical third.C) junction of the cervical and middle thirds.D) middle third.
    A) occlusal 1/3
  17. The type of infection most commonly transmitted by transfusion of properly screened blood is
    A) type B hepatitis.
    B) non-A non-B hepatitis.
    C) type A hepatitis.
    D) cytomegalovirus.
    • B) Hepatitis C
    • - Chronic, Cirrhosis, Carcinoma, Carriers
  18. The connective tissue sheath that surrounds a muscle as a whole and is synonymous with the gross anatomic deep fascia is the

    A) periosteum.B) perimysium.C) perichondrium.D) endomysium.E) epimysium.
    endomysium (individual muscle fibers)--> perimysium (bundle of fibers)--> epimysium (bundle of fascicles)
  19. Salivary, sweat, sebaceous, and von Ebner's glands all have in common the characteristic of being

    A) exocrine.B) simple.C) holocrine.D) merocrine.E) compound.
    exocrine glands

    Exocrine glands are named apocrine gland, holocrine gland, or merocrine gland based on how their product is secreted.

    Apocrine glands - a portion of the plasma membrane buds off the cell, containing the secretion.

    Holocrine glands - the entire cell disintegrates to secrete its substance.

    Merocrine glands - cells secrete their substances by exocytosis.
  20. In an ideal intercuspal position, the cusp tip of a permanent maxillary canine should contact
    A) both mandibular canine and first premolar.
    B) no other tooth.
    C) the mandibular lateral incisor only.
    D) the mandibular canine only.
    E) the mandibular first premolar only.
    B) No other tooth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which of the following primary teeth has the smallest faciolingual dimension of its crown?
    A) Maxillary lateral incisor
    B) Mandibular lateral incisor
    C) Maxillary canine
    D) Mandibular central incisor
    D) Mandibular central incisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. The lingual height of contour on a permanent mandibular second molar is located

    A) in the cervical third.
    B) at the junction of the middle and occlusal thirds.
    C) in the occlusal third.
    D) in the middle third.
    E) at the junction of the cervical and middle thirds.
    D) middle 1/3

    All facial HOC= cervical

    Linguals:
    all anterior teeth= cervical
    all posterior teeth= middle 1/3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Connective tissue proper is characterized as having
    A) more intercellular material than cells.
    B) little tissue fluid.
    C) sensitivity as its main function.
    D) poor reparative ability.
    A)

    collagen is main protein of CT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to which of the following nerves?

    A) FacialB) TrigeminalC) OpticD) Auditory
    • Auditory- hearing loss (ototoxicity)
    • - bactericidal--> protein synthesis inhibitor that binds 30S ribosome- precents synthesis of proteins
    • - aminoglycoside
    • - IM injection
  25. The non-working pathway of the maxillary cusps on the mandibular posterior teeth is toward the

    A) mesiolingual.B) distofacial.C) distolingual.D) mesiofacial.
    B) distofacial

    the mandibular nonworking cusps move mesiofacially
  26. Properdin
    • - aka Factor P
    • - protein in blood
    • - innate immune system
    • - component of alternative pathway for complement activation "properdin pathway"--> complexes w/ C3b
    • - alternative "properdin" pathway is activated by IgA immune complexes, bacterial endotoxins, cell walls, polysaccharides--> results in anaphylatoxins, opsonins, chemotactic factors, MAC to fight pathogens
  27. Proprioceptors are found in each of the following EXCEPT
    A) skeletal muscle.
    B) the pulp of a tooth.
    C) the temporomandibular joint.
    D) gingiva.
    E) the periodontal ligament
    • B) pulp of the tooth
    • - pulp of tooth

    • Zones of pulp:
    • (Outside--> inside)
    • 1. odontoblastic layer- odontoblasts lining pulp chamber
    • 2. Cell free zone of Weill- acellular
    • - contains Rashkow's plexus (parietal plexus of nerves) and mesenchymal cells
    • 3. cell rich zone= fibroblasts and undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
    • 4. pulp core- fibroblasts, leukocytes, blood and lymph vessels, myelinated (mostly A-delta and C fibers), collagen I and II; no elastic fibers
  28. Which of the following permanent incisors most frequently have concave areas on both mesial and distal root surfaces?

    (a) Maxillary central; (b) Mandibular central; (c) Maxillary lateral; (d) Mandibular lateral
    B and D
  29. In a patient with a left canine protection, the mesiolingual surface of the maxillary right first molar contacts the distofacial surface of the mandibular right first molar during a left lateral excursion. This contact is
    A) normal, and a non-working side interference.
    B) evidence of group function.
    C) a working side interference.
    D) a non-working side interference.
    E) normal.
    D) a non-working side interference

    group function- when the working side canines and posterior teeth contact, but they disarticulate teeth on the non-working side

    ESSENTIAL TO HAVE NO NON-WORKING SIDE CONTACTS bc they are damaging
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. In an ideal permanent tooth relationship, the tip of a mandibular canine in lateral excursion passes
    A) mesial to the tip of the maxillary canine cusp.
    B) directly in line with the maxillary canine cusp tip.
    C) distal to the tip of the maxillary canine cusp.
    D) through the embrasure between the maxillary canine and first premolar.
    A) mesial to the tip of the maxillary canine cusp
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Salivary gland striated ducts are composed of which of the following types of epithelium?

    A) Simple low columnar
    B) Psuedostratified ciliated columnar
    C) Simple squamous
    D) Simple cuboidal
    E) Stratified squamous
    • A) Simple low columnar in striated ducts
    • -modify salivary fluid by secreting HCO3-and K+ and reabsorbing Na+ and Cl- using the Na-K pump and the Cl-HCO3 pump
    • - ion pumping so it has a lot of mitochondria
    • - striated bc of basal cytoplasmic processes

    • Intercalated Duct
    • - cuboidal secretory cells

    terminal secretory unit--> intercalated duct--> striated duct
  32. It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum because of the presence of
    A) submucosal glands in the duodenum only.
    B) mucosal glands in the stomach only.
    C) simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only.
    D) smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only.
    E) muscularis mucosa in the stomach only.
    A)

    Stomach:
    - simple columnar
    - rugae- folds in stomach that accomodate expansion
    - produces chyme

    4 types of cells located throughout the mucosa, but not submucosa

    1.mucous cells
    2. chief cells- pepsinogen
    3. parietal cells- HCl and intrinsic factor
    4. enteroendocrine cells (APUD) cells- gastrin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. In a dry-heat oven, which of the following temperatures is aufficient for achieving sterilization in 1-2 hours?

    A) 121oC
    B) 81oC
    C) 100oC
    D) 160oC
    D)

    Dry Heat

    160 degrees C (320 degrees F) for 2 hours
    OR 170 degrees for 1 hour

    - denatures proteins

    Pros:
    - doesn't corrode/dull instruments

    Cons:
    - ruins heat-sensitive materials; instruments must be DRY bc water interes w/ sterilization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. The MOST important viral cause of gastroenteritis in children less than 2 old is
    A) echovirus.
    B) rotavirus.
    C) rhinovirus.
    D) cytomegalovirus.
    E) coxsackievirus.
    B) Rotavirus

    "Repeat-o-virus"; a REOVIRUS= dsRNA
    ROTA= Right Out of The Anus

    *** MOST imp global cause of infantile gastroenteritis
    - acute diarrhea, esp in day-care centers, kindergartens during winter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Rubella and toxoplasmosis are similar in that both

    A) are prevented by vaccinations.
    B) are potentially teratogenic.
    C) can not be treated with antibiotics.
    D) primarily affect the elderly.
    E) have non-human animal reservoirs
    Maternal Infection Teratogens:

    • TORCH complex
    • 1. Toxoplasmosis- parasitic disease caused by protozoan Toxoplasma gondii
    • - primary host is cat
    • - usually from infected meat or eating infected cat feces
    • - rarely causes symptoms in healthy people--> many enter latent phase
    • - acute phase- flu-like
    • - immunocompromised: encephalitis, neurologic, heart and liver problems
    • - Most infants who are infected while in the womb have no symptoms at birth but may develop symptoms later in life

    • 2. other agents
    • 3. Rubella
    • 4. CMV
    • 5. HSV
  36. The apical cytoplasm of active serous glandular cells is typically filled with which of the following?

    A) Abundance of lipid droplets
    B) Abundance of zymogen granules
    C) Abundance of mitochondria
    D) Abundance of ribosomes
    E) Large amount of DNA
    B) abundance of zymogen granules

    - basal processes (closest to lumen) are rich w/ MITOCHONDRIA- provide E for ion transport
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. What is the composition of saliva?
    • - hypotonic
    • - enzymes: 1) amylase 2) lysozyme (antibacterial
    • - antibodies (IgA mostly)
    • - inorganic ions

    - serous cells secrete fluid ISOTONIC w/ plasma
  38. Which of the following BEST characterizes the alveolar mucous membrane?

    A) Separated from the gingiva by the free gingival groove
    B) Has no melanocytes
    C) Appears red due to high vascularity and thinness of epithelium
    D) Firmly bound to underlying bone
    E) Well developed epithelial ridges
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The majority of cases of pharyngitis are caused by
    A) hemophilus influenzae.
    B) herpes simplex virus.
    C) Staphylococcus aureus.
    D) alpha-hemolytic streptococci.
    E) a variety of viruses.
    E
  40. A fungus that causes systemic disease, most commonly of the lungs, and is characterized by its production of tuberculate chlamydospores in culture is
    A) Actinomyces israelii.
    B) Microsponum cants.
    C) Histoplasma capsulatum
    D) Mycoplasma hominis.
    E) Leptospira pomona.
    C)

    4 Systemic Mycoses:
    - dimorphic fungi (mold in soil, yeast in tissue) except coccidiodomycosis
    - Mold= cold; Heat=yeast
    - all can cause PNEUMONIA and DISSEMINATE
    - SYSTEMIC MYCOSES mimics TB (granulomas)
    Tx: fluconazole or ketoconazole

    1. Histoplasmosis- causes pneumonia
    - Mississippi and Ohio R. Valleys
    - bird or bat droppings
    - intracellular (tiny yeast inside macrophages)
    *** "Histo"="histiocyte" tissue macrophage

    2. Blastomycosis= Big, Broad, Budding

    3. Coccidiomycosis- California
    - pneumonia and meningitis
    - SPHERULE filled w/ endospores
    - valley fever
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Each of the following is a risk factor in atherosclerosis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

    A) Heredity
    B) Hyperlipoproteinemia
    C) Alcoholism
    D) Diabetes mellitus
    E) Hypertension
    C) Alcoholism

    Risks for atherosclerosis:

    1. Smoking
    2. Men and postmenopausal women (low estrogen)
    3. HTN
    4. heredity
    5. nephrosclerosis (secondary HTN)
    6. Diabetes
    7. Hyperlipidemia (higher LDL= bad)

    - most common sites:
    - CAD (heart)
    - abdominal aorta
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Cementum differs from dentin in that cementum

    A) contains some elastic fibers, whereas dentin contains only collagenous fibers.
    B) can contain cells, whereas dentin contains cells as well as cell processes.
    C) is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament, but dentin is produced by pulp cells
    D) is not formed following eruption of the tooth.
    E) contains more inorganic material than dentin.
    C)

    B is incorrect because dentin is 70% inorganic and enamel is 55% inorganic (mineralized)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Excessive deposits of copper in liver cells, degenerative changes in the brain, and a greenish-brown ring at the outer margin of the cornea characterize which of the following?

    A) Diabetes mellitus
    B) Tay-Sachs disease
    C) Phenylketonuria
    D) Wilson's disease
    E) Galactosemia
    Wilson's Disease

    • - autosomal recessive- mutations in wilson disease protein
    • - Cu accumulates in tissues
    • - hepatolenticular degeneration
    • - liver disease
    • - neurological symptoms
    • -Cu in LIVER and BRAIN
  44. Which of the following represents the major pathway for metabolism of excessive intraneuronal free norepinephrine?

    A) Hydroxylation by dopamine beta hydroxylase
    B) Hydroxylation by monoamine oxidase
    C) Deamination by monoamine oxidase
    D) Methylation by catechol-0-methyl transferase
    E) Hydrolysis by cholinesterase
    D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. A subject consumes 250 ml of oxygen per minute with a tidal volume of 400 ml and a respiratory rate of 18 per minute. Which of the following represents this subject's respiratory minute volume in liters?
    A) 5.4
    B) 7.2
    C) 10.0
    D) 1.8
    E) 4.5
    B. 7.2

    respiratory minute volume= 0.4 L x 18 breaths/min= 7.2
  46. Which of the following types of tissues can be demonstrated on the posterior slope of the articular eminence?A) Fibrocartilage
    B) Fibrous connective tissue
    C) Elastic cartilage
    D) Hyaline cartilage
    E) Articular cartilage
    B) fibrous connective tissue
  47. MOST fluid reabsorption by the kidney occurs in which of the following?
    A) Collecting duct
    B) Ascending loop of Henle
    C) Distal tubule
    D) Descending loop of Henle
    E) Proximal tubule
    E) Proximal Tubule
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. A hemorrhagic tendency is seldom seen in which of the following conditions?
    A) Hepatic insufficiency
    B) Secondary thrombocytopenia
    C) Acute leukemia
    D) Renal insufficiency
    E) Scurvy
    • A) hepatic insufficiency- bc it makes clotting factors
    • B) low platelets= increase bleeding time
    • C) acute leukemia= pancytopenia; low platelets increase bleeding time
    • E) Scurvy- Vit C deficiency; get bleeding esp gums
  49. The finding of yeast cells and chlamydospores in the oral mucosa suggest which of the following?

    A) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
    B) Candida albicans
    C) Cryptococcus neoformans
    D) Histoplasma capsulatum
    E) Blastomyces denmatitidis
    B) Candida Albicans

    - chlamydospore- thick-walled big resting spore of several kinds of fungi. It is the life-stage which survives in unfavourable conditions, such as dry or hot seasons.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Streptococcus pyogenes, group A, is subdivided into specific antigenic types principally on the basis of immunologic differences in its

    A) streptolysin 0.
    B) C polysaccharide.
    C) M protein.
    D) streptolysin S.
    E) hyaluronic acid capsule.
    C) M Protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Which of the following are MOST antigenic?
    A) Nucleic acids
    B) Haptens
    C) Lipids
    D) Proteins
    E) Carbohydrates
    D) Proteins

    Hapten- "half an antigen"- a small molecule that can elicit immune response only when attached to a larger carrier (like a protein)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Which of the following represents a DNA gyrase inhibitor with a broad spectrum of activity?
    A) Ciprofloxacin
    B) Rifampicin
    C) Cycloserine
    D) Polymyxin
    E) Ethambutol
    A) Ciprofloxacin/Ofloxacin

    - 2nd gen Fluoroquinolone class
    - It kills bacteria by interfering with the enzymes that cause DNA to rewind after being copied, which stops DNA and protein synthesis (DNA gyrase/topoisomerase)
    - Bactericidal
    - AEROBIC/facultative gram + and - and mycobacteria; NOT ANAEROBES
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. A 6-year-old boy has minute white specks on the oral mucosa adjacent to his first molars. A bluish-red ring surrounds these spots. He appears to have a cold and his eyes are red and runny. There is a blotchy reddish rash behind his ears and on his face. This child has which of the following?

    A) MeaslesB) ChickenpoxC) Scarlet feverD) Eczema
    A) Measles/Rubeola- a Paramyxovirus

    • - Koplik spots- red spots with white centers on buccal mucosa
    • - rash
    • 3 C's of Measles:
    • 1. cough
    • 2. coryza- inflammation of mucous membranes
    • 3. conjunctivitis
  54. What condylar movement is performed as the mandible moves from a pure protrusive movement from maximum intercuspal position to a maximum protruded position?
    A) Medial and forward
    B) Hinge
    C) Translation
    D) Rotation
    C) Translation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The absolute refractory period of a nerve action potential is determined by the duration of which of the following?
    A) Sodium activation gate opening
    B) Potassium activation gate opening
    C) Potassium inactivation gate closure
    D) Sodium inactivation gate closure
    D)

    3 phases of Na+ gate:
    - deactivated (closed)- blocked on their intracellular side by an "activation gate", which is removed in response to stimulation that opens the channel.
    - activated (open)
    - inactivated (closed)

    - local anesthesia favors activated and inactivated states--> rapidly firing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. In an ideal intercuspal relation, the oblique ridge of the maxillary first molar opposes which structure of the mandibular molar?
    A) The developmental groove between the distofacial and distal cusps of the first
    B) The interproximal area between first and second
    C) The developmental groove between the mesiolingual and distolingual cusps of the first
    D) The developmental groove between the mesiofacial and distofacial cusps of the first
    A)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. In anemia resulting from drug-induced bone marrow suppression, the peripheral blood smear shows erythrocytes to be
    A) hyperchromic - macrocytic.
    B) normochromic- microcytic.
    C) hypochromic - microcytic.
    D) normochromic- normocytic.
    E) hypochromic - normocytic.
    D
  58. In protrusive movement, the mandibular canines in a Class II occlusal relationship articulate with which of the following maxillary teeth?

    A) Canines only
    B) Lateral incisors only
    C) Canines and first premolars
    D) Canines and lateral incisors
    D) Canines and lateral incisors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. In an ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiofacial cusps of the mandibular second molars contact the maxillary molars in (on) the
    A) lingual embrasures between the first and second.
    B) mesial marginal ridges of the second.
    C) facial embrasures between the first and second.
    D) central fossae of the second.
    E) distal fossae of the second.
    B)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. The growth rate in the cartilage of the epiphyseal plate of a long bone is markedly retarded when there is a lack of hormone from which of the following?

    A) Adrenals
    B) Testes
    C) Parathyroids
    D) Islets of Langerhans
    E) Hypophysis
    E) hypophysis= pituitary gland!

    - adenohypophysis= anterior pituitary
    -->B-FLAT (basophophils) and GH, Prolactin, endorphins (acidophils)

    - neurohypophysis= posterior pituitary
    --> oxytocin and ADH/vasopressin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Regulation of each of the following mechanisms is associated with the hypothalamus EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

    A) Carbohydrate metabolism
    B) Body temperature
    C) Pupillary diameter
    D) Water balance
    E) Sleep
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Which of the following is an antimicrobial agent that primarily inactivates cellular DNA
    A) Chlorhexidine
    B) Alkaline glutaraldehyde
    C) Phenols
    D) Ethylene oxide
    E) 70 percent isopropyl alcohol
    • D) Ethylene oxide gas
    • - sterilization method
    • - sterilization is slow 10-16 hours
    • - inactivates DNA and proteins

    • Pros:
    • - used mostly in HOSPITALS for heat-sensitive materials

    • Cons:
    • - long time
    • - VERY TOXIC and flammable; need good ventilation

    • A. chlorhexidine- inhibits plaque gingivitis (most potent inhibitor)
    • - Peridec, Perioguard
    • - stains teeth, alters taste perception

    • B. Glutaraldehyde (2%)- sterilization
    • - alkylates nucleic acids and proteins
    • - takes 10 hours--> used for respiratory equipment
    • - most potent CHEMICAL germicide
    • - associated w/ HYPERSENSITIVITY
  63. Which of the following BEST describes the Curve of Spee?
    A) The composite arrangement of the facial crown surface heights of contour of all the teeth in any quadrant
    B) The spherical configuration of the composite arrangement of the occlusal surfaces and incisal edges of the teeth of both dental arches
    C) The anterior-posterior curvature of the occlusal surfaces of the teeth, as seen in a facial view
    D) The inclination of the teeth in relation to the vertical long axis of the body
    E) The facial-lingual curvature resulting from the facial cusps being the longest in the mandibular arch, and the lingual cusps being the longest in the maxillary arch
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which of the following has a high affinity for binding calcium and collagen in the calcifying matrix?
    A) Osteogenin
    B) Amelogenin
    C) Calcitonin
    D) Osteonectin
    E) Fibronectin
    D) Osteonectin

    - glycoprotein in bone that binds calcium and has high affinity for collagen
    - secreted by osteoblasts during bone formation
    - vital in bone mineralization, cell matrix interactions, collagen binding
    - increases activity of matrix metalloproteinases (imp for invading cancer cells in bone)
    - overexpressed in many cancers (e.g. breast, prostate, colon)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. In a Class II occlusal relationship, the tip of the facial cusp of a mandibular first premolar lies directly below the contacting area between which maxillary teeth?
    A) First and second premolars
    B) Second premolar and first molar
    C) Canine and first premolar
    D) Canine and lateral incisor
    A
  66. Which of the following represents a striated muscle that contains transverse tubules, a slow rate of calcium sequestration, and is inhibited by acetylcholine?
    A) Single unit smooth
    B) Cardiac
    C) Skeletal
    D) Multi-unit smooth
    B)

    T-tubules are less developed
    - slow rate of Ca2+ sequestration to ensure ventricles can fill up
    - Ach parasympathetics decrease its activity
    - sympathetics (Epinephrine) increases activity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Which of the following causes activation of the pyloric pump, relaxation of the pylorus, and contraction of the lower esophageal sphincter?

    A) Pepsinogen
    B) Gastrin
    C) Acetylcholine
    D) Cholecystokinin
    E) Secretin
    • B) gastrin
    • - increases HCl secretion; stimulates parietal cells
    • - increases growth of gastric mucosa
    • - increases gastric motility

    • - increased by stomach distention, amino acids, peptides, vagal stimulation
    • - decreased by stomach pH <1.5

    Ach- from vagal stimulation stimulates gastric parietal cell
  68. Hypersensitivity to M. Tuberculosis is manifested by which of the following?
    A) Langhans' giant cells
    B) Necrosis
    C) Epithelioid cells
    D) Exudation
    E) Spreading of the initial focus
    B) necrosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Dentinal tubules are S-shaped in the crown of the tooth due to the
    A) incremental pattern.
    B) formation of peritubular dentin.
    C) crowding of odontoblasts.
    D) calcification pattern of maturing dentin.
    E) epithelial diaphragm.
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament is the first to offer resistance to movement of the tooth in an occlusal direction?
    A) Horizontal
    B) Alveolar crest
    C) Apical
    D) Oblique
    E) lnterradicular
    C) apical

    - apical fibers are at the apex of the root
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. In a newly erupted tooth, the junction between tooth surface and the crevicular epithelium consists of which of the following?
    A) Basal lamina-like structure between enamel and epithelium
    B) Keratin fibers, running from the epithelium deeply into the enamel
    C) Basal lamina-like structure between dentin and epithelium
    D) Interstitial crevicular fluid
    E) Basal lamina-like structure between cementum and epithelium
    • A) Basal-lamina like structure btwn enamel and epithelium- forms epithelial attachment
    • - secreted by epithelial cells; epithelial cells on top of an ECM often confused as basement membrane

    • - Basal lamina:
    • 1. lamina lucida
    • 2. lamina densa- electron dense

    • Basement membrane:
    • 1. lamina lucida
    • 2. lamina densa
    • Lamina reticularis
  72. Which of the following is a function of the enterogastric reflex?
    A) Decreases motility of the stomach
    B) Increases motility of the ileum
    C) Increases gallbladder emptying
    D) Decreases the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter
    E) Increases motility of the esophagus
    • A)
    • Enterogastric reflex- one of 3 reflexes in GI tract

    • + stimulation:
    • - acid in duodenum
    • - stomach pH < 1.5

    • Results in:
    • - inhibit gastrin from G-cells in antrum of stomach
    • - inhibit gastric motility and HCl secretion

    - purpose: shuts off stomach motility when there is chyme in duodenum
  73. Vascular smooth muscle relaxes in response to
    A) angiotensin
    B) norepinephrine.
    C) vasopressin.
    D) hyperoxia.
    E) adenosine.
    E) adenosine

    - G-protein coupled receptors

    adenosine imp in:
    1. E transfer (e.g. ATP,ADP)
    2. signal transduction (e.g. cAMP)
    3. inhibitory NT- promote sleep and arousal
    4. causes endothelial dependent relaxation of smooth muscle and is found inside artery walls
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Buerger's Disease
    aka Thomboangiitis obliterans

    • -recurring inflammation and thrombosis of small and medium arteries of hands and feet
    • - main symptom= PAIN in affected areas
    • - complications= ulcerations and gangrene of extremities--> need amputation
    • - strongly associated with tobacco products, esp smoking

    • Etiology:
    • - MEN in 20-40s (like Warthin's Tumor)
  75. A 53-year-oid patient has an indurated, chronic ulcer near the inner canthus. The MOST likely diagnosis is
    A) adenocarcinoma of the lacrimal duct.
    B) verruca vulgaris.
    C) squamous cell carcinoma.
    D) malignant melanoma.
    E) basal cell carcinoma.
    • E) basal cell carcinoma- most common skin malignancy
    • - never metastasizes
    • - malignant bc destroys surrounding tissues
  76. The oral lesions of herpangina can often be distinguished from hand-foot-and-mouth disease by which of the following?
    A) Their intraoral locations
    B) Their density and number
    C) Their gradual confluence
    D) Their physical appearance
    A) Coxsackie A virus- picoRNA, ssRNA, non-enveloped

    Herpangina- self limited
    - tonsillar pillars and soft palate, pharyngitis
    - malaise, fever, dysphagia
    - outbreaks in summer: fecal/oral, contaminated saliva

    Hand-foot-mouth
    - airborne/ fecal-oral
    - oral lesions favor palate, tongue, buccal mucosa
    - mostly in children
    - fever, malaise, sore mouth, lymphadenopathy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. The submucosa is present in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?A) Jejunum
    B) Colon
    C) Duodenum
    D) Stomach
    E) Gallbladder
    E) Gall Bladder

    • - non-vital organ
    • - stores bile

    • Histology:
    • - simple columnar epithelial lining
    • - Aschoff's recesses- pouches inside the lining
    • - lamina propria- connective tissue
    • - smooth muscle (muscularis externa)- contracts in response to CCK from duodenum to release bile
    • - NO SUBMUCOSA btwn mucosa and adventitia; just thin muscular layer that prevents infection
  78. Which of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in bacteria?
    A) Mitochondrion
    B) Cytoplasm
    C) Nucleus
    D) Ribosome
    E) Cell membrane
    E) cell membrane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Each of the following develops as an outpocketing of the gut tube EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) Liver
    B) Gallbladder
    C) Pancreas
    D) Lung
    E) Spleen
    • E) SpleenIllu spleen.jpg
    • - like thymus, contains only EFFERENT vessels
    • - forms w/in and from the dorsal mesentery (DERIVED FROM MESENCHYMAL tissue)
    • - mesenchyme- reticular connective tissue derived from all 3 germ layers
    • - can dev into cartilage, lymphatic system, circulatory, connective tissue


    • - holds reserve of RBCs in case of hemorrhagic shock
    • - recycles iron
    • - removes old RBCs

    • white pulp
    • - synthesis Ab's
    • - removes Ab-coated bacteria and Ab-coated blood cells
    • - removal leads to increase infections

    *** All the rest are derived from gut tube (endoderm)
  80. Which of the following bacterial exotoxins converts plasminogen to plasmin?
    A) Coagulase
    B) M-protein
    C) Hyaluronidase
    D) Streptokinase
    E) Plasmalysin
    D) streptokinase

    - inexpensive blood-clotting medication
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. Which of the following conditions predisposes to lung cancer by causing squamous metaplasia of bronchial epithelium?
    A) Bronchial asthma
    B) Pulmonary emphysema
    C) Bronchiectasis
    D) Chronic bronchitis
    E) Bronchial carcinoid
    • D) Chronic Bronchitis (COPD)--> Cigarette smoking
    • - increase lung cancer- squamous metaplasia from chronic inflammation
    • - blue bloaters- early cyanosis; late dyspnea
    • - productive cough, noisy chest
    • - chronic cough 3 months in 2 yrs
    • - increase reid index- mucosal gland thickness: smooth muscle
  82. Which of the following represents the MOST frequent cause of a clinically palpable breast mass in an adult woman?
    A) Adenocarcinoma
    B) Fibroadenoma
    C) Sarcoma
    D) Intraductal papilloma
    E) Fibrocystic disease
    E) fibrocystic disease- normal collagen buildup; benign

    - fibroadenoma- most common in younger than 25 yrs

    - Invasive ductal= most common malignant breast tumor; worst and most invasive
    - firm, fibrous mass, small, glandular, duct-like cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Which of the following conditions increase the risk of developing osteosarcoma?
    A) Osteoblastoma
    B) Osteogenesis imperfecta
    C) Osteitis deformans
    D) Osteoporosis
    E) Osteomalacia
    • C) Osteitis deformans= Paget's disease
    • - uncontrolled osteoclast/osteoblast activity
    • - increase in size of head; enlarged and deformed bones
    • - bone is weak - arthritis, fractures
    • - Men>women; less than 40s
    • - RARELY results in OSTEOGENIC SARCOMA

    • a) osteoblastoma- benign tumor found in vertebral column - trabeculae and woven bone surrounded by osteoblasts
    • b) osteogenesis imperfecta- Type I collagen deficiency
    • - autosomal dominant- aa substitituion of glycine by a bulkier one
    • - blue sclera, bone fractures, hearing loss (bony ossicles malformed), dentin malformation
    • d) osteoporosis- esp in post-menopausal women (decrease in estrogen); decrease in bone density
    • e) osteomalacia- softening of bones; vit D deficiency in adults
  84. Neurofibromatosis type I is characterized by which of the following conditions?
    A) Multiple mucosal neuromas
    B) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
    C) Multiple pigmented macules of the skin
    D) Perioral melanotic freckles
    E) Development of visceral carcinoma
    C) Cafe au laix macules

    Perioral melanotic macules- Addison's and Peutz-Jegher

    Neurofibromatosis- Autosomal Dominant tumors of melanocytes and schwann cells (derived from neural crest)
    - harmless or cause damage by compressing nerves/tissue

    1. Type I- Lisch Nodules, neural tumors, cafe aux laix, skeletal disorders, pheochromocytosis; chromosome 17
    2. Type II- characterized by ACOUSTIC SCHWANNOMAS (deafness)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Which of the following cancers typically arises in teenagers and young adults?
    A) Multiple myeloma
    B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
    C) Wilms' tumor
    D) Angiosarcoma
    E) Ewing's sarcoma
    • E) Ewings (t 11,22)
    • - onion peel appearance
    • - early metastasis
    • - v. responsive to radiotherapy
    • - SMALL BLUE cell malignant tumor
    • - most common in boys <15 yrs old

    • C) Wilm's tumor
    • - most common renal malignancy of early childhood (age 2-4)
    • - huge palpable mass
  86. Of the primary maxillary teeth, the cervical ridge would stand outMOST prominently as a distinct entity on which surface of which molar?
    A) Second molar, Distolingual surface
    B) Second molar, Mesiolingual surface
    C) First molar, Distofacial surface
    D) First molar, Mesiofacial surface
    E) Second molar, Distofacial surface
    D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Following eruption and initial occlusal contact in the oral cavity, a tooth will continue to erupt in order to compensate for occlusal wear. In response to this continuous eruption, which of the following is deposited at the apex of the root?

    A) Reparative dentin
    B) Primary dentin
    C) Cellular cementum
    D) Acellular cementum
    E) Secondary dentin
    • C) Cellular cementum
    • - located at the 1/2-1/3 apical portion of root
    • - cementum lacks vascularization

    - Acellular cementum is the enamel located at the lower part of then enamel (more cervical)
  88. Which of the following teeth is the LEAST likely tooth to have a bifurcation of the root?
    A) Mandibular central incisor
    B) Maxillary central incisor
    C) Maxillary second premolar
    D) Mandibular canine
    E) Mandibular lateral incisor
    B
  89. Each of the following is characteristic of herpes zoster EXCEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) Usually involves 1-3 dermatomes.
    B) Unilateral
    C) More common in individuals who are immunocompromised.
    D) Only occurs in an individual having a latent VZV infection.
    E) Occurs repeatedly in immunocompetent patients.
    E)

    VZV
    Children
    - Chickenpox

    Adults
    - zoster
    - posterherpetic neuralgia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Which of the following is the lobe of the cerebral hemisphere that lies in the middle cranial fossa?
    A) Occipital
    B) Temporal
    C) Parietal
    D) Frontal
    B)

    frontal- anterior fossa
    occipital- posterior cranial fossa

    anterior and middle cranial fossa separated by lesser wing of sphenoid bone
    middle and posterior cranial fossa separated by petrous part of temporal bone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. MOST cases of choriocarcinoma are discovered by the appearance of a rising titer in blood or urine of which of the following?
    A) Alkaline phosphatase
    B) Alpha-fetoprotein
    C) Human chorionic gonadotropin
    D) Acid phosphatase
    E) Carcinoembryonic antigen
    C) HcG

    choriocarcinoma- aggressive, malignant cancer of placenta
    - early hematogenous spread to LUNGS
    - v. sensitive to chemotherapy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. The apex of the horizontal plane Gothic-arch tracing represents which of the following positions?
    A) Centric relation
    B) Rest position
    C) Maximum opening
    D) Lateral protrusive
    • A)
  93. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to mastication of food?
    A) An ideal occlusion is a requisite for masticatory efficiency.
    B) Proper incisor contact is a requisite for masticatory efficiency.
    C) Indigestion is generally related to inadequate mastication of food.
    D) Food is masticated primarily in lateral contacting movement.
    E) Food is masticated primarily in a border movement.
    D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. A mature ovum is expelled from which of the following?
    A) Corpus hemorrhagicum
    B) Graafian follicles
    C) Corpus albicans
    D) Corpus luteum
    B)

    1. graafian follicle ruptures to release mature ovum
    2. corpus hemorrhagicum immediately after rupture
    3. Corpus luteum
    4. corpus albicans= degenerated corpus luteum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. TNF-Beta
    • a lymphokine cytokine that kills virally infected cells by producing holes in cell membrane
    • - released by Cytotoxic T8 cells
  96. Calcium dipicolinate is present in large amounts in
    A) mitochondria.
    B) ribosomes.
    C) f1agella.
    D) spores.
    E) mesosomes.
    D
  97. Each of the following statements describes a contributor to the initiation of mineralization of bone EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) Release of acid phosphatase by osteocytes trapped in lacunae
    B) Holes or pores in collagen fibers
    C) Alkaline phosphatase activity in osteoblasts and matrix vesicles
    D) Degradation of matrix pyrophosphate to release an inorganic phosphate group
    E) Release of matrix vesicles by osteoblasts
    A
  98. Before swallowing can be initiated, afferent information must be received

    A) from mucosal mechanoreceptors, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
    B) in a lesser amount form nociceptors, indicating a soft bolus of food.
    C) from pharyngeal taste receptors, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
    D) from muscle spindles, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
    A) CONSISTENCY!
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Glucose can be made from each of the following substancesEXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?A) Fructose
    B) Glycerol
    C) Pyruvate
    D) Lactate
    E) Acetyl CoA
    E)
  100. The movement in the upper compartment of the temporomandibular joint is rotation and translation. The movement in the lower compartment is translation.
    A) Both statements are TRUE.
    B) Both statements are FALSE.
    C) The first statement is FALSE, and the second isTRUE.
    D) The first statement is TRUE, and the second isFALSE.
    B)

    ROTATION= hinge movement

    upper compartment= translation
    lower compartment= hinge-type rotation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. Juxtamedullary nephron vs. cortical nephron
    • - differ mostly by the length of the loop of Henle
    • - named based on location of the renal corpuscle (glomerulus + Bowman's capsule)

    1. juxta- more rare; responsible for creating osmotic gradient in medulla
  102. Atropine prevents the secretion of saliva resulting from stimulation of the chorda tympani because it
    A) prevents release of acetylcholine by sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
    B) prevents release of acetylcholine in autonomic ganglia.
    C) prevents the action of acetylcholine on the secreting cells.
    D) denatures the salivary gland proteins.
    - competitive antagonist for the muscarinic receptor so it doesn't allow Ach to bind
  103. If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5'ACG3', then which of the following is its corresponding codon on messenger-RNA?
    A) 5' UAG 3
    'B) 5' CGT 3'
    C) 5' CGU 3'
    D) 5' UGC 3'
    E) 5' TGC 3'
    C
  104. Cigarette smoking has been etiologically linked to each of the following cancers EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) Oral cavity
    B) Urinary bladder
    C) Esophagus
    D) Lung
    E) Colon
    E)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. In the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential of contacting both anterior and posterior antagonists?
    A) Maxillary canine
    B) Mandibular canine
    C) Mandibular lateral incisor
    D) Maxillary lateral incisor
    A
  106. On the crown of the primary maxillary first molar, the mesial surface normally
    A) exhibits a straight cervical line.
    B) is wider buccolingually at the occlusal table than at the cervical third.
    C) is larger than the distal surface of the same tooth.
    D) exhibits a concave lingual outline.
    E) is wider occlusocervically than buccolingually.
    C
  107. Which of the following factors MOST influences the lingual concavity of the maxillary anterior teeth and groove direction of the posterior teeth?
    A) Angle of the eminence
    B) Sideshift of the mandible (Bennett movement)
    C) Anterior guidance
    D) Direction of movement of the rotating condyle
    E) Curve of the occlusion
    B
  108. Each of the following is attributable to hepatic failure EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?A) Hypoalbuminemia
    B) Mallory bodies
    C) Tremor
    D) Spider telangiectasia
    E) Gynecomastia
    • B) Mallory Body
    • - alcoholic hyaline inclusion in cytoplasm of liver cells
    • - most common in alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic cirrhosis
  109. Which main product of protein nitrogen metabolism is found in human urine?
    A) Urea
    B) Ammonia
    C) Creatinine
    D) Creatine
    E) Uric acid
    A) urea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. During the life span of a multi rooted tooth, dentin continues to form MOSTrapidly at which of the following locations?
    A) Facial and lingual walls of the pulp chamber
    B) Mesial and distal walls of the pulp chamber
    C) Within the root canals
    D) Floor and roof of the pulp chamber
    E) At the dentinoenamel junction
    D
  111. A patient reports breaking a lower right central incisor while eating a cookie. Which of the following mandibular movements was the patient MOST likely making when this occurred?
    A) Retrusive
    B) Right working
    C) Protrusive
    D) Left working
    E) Straight closure
    C
  112. Which of the following types of bronchogenic carcinoma is MOST commonly associated with paraneoplastic syndrome?
    A) Adenocarcinoma
    B) Small cell carcinoma
    C) Mesothelioma
    D) Large cell carcinoma
    B)

    Paraneoplastic syndrome
    - disease or symptom that is the consequence of cancer in the body, but is not due to local presence of cancer cells

    Small cell- ectopic production of ACTH or ADH
    - can lead to Lambert-Eaton syndrome (auto-Ab's against Ca2+ channels)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint consists of
    A) an outer layer of mesothelium and an inner core of hyaline cartilage.
    B) an outer synovial layer and an inner fibrous layer.
    C) hyaline cartilage.
    D) loose fibrous connective tissue.
    E) dense fibrous connective tissue.
    E
  114. In a CUSP TO FOSSA contacting relationship in intercuspal position, the maxillary first premolar is MOST likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth?
    A) First premolar
    B) First premolar and second premolar
    C) Canine and first premolar
    D) Lateral incisor
    E) Lateral incisor and canine
    A)

    Because of the mesial swing of the lingual cusp
    - nothing occludes in the mesial fossas of the mandibular teeth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. The OLDEST enamel in a fully erupted first molar is located at the cervix of the tooth.
    A) oral surface of a cusp.
    B) dentinoenamel junction underlying a cusp.
    C) mesial and distal surfaces of the tooth.
    D) dentinoenamel junction underlying a fissure.
    D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Which of the following represents the structure in the maxillary alveolar bone that maxillary premolar roots occasionally penetrate?
    A) Mandibular fossa
    B) Frontal sinus
    C) Antrum
    D) Zygomatic arch
    E) Nasal septum
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Which of the following is MOST likely to precede an impending atherosclerotic cerebral infarction?A) Myocardial infarction
    B) Ruptured berry aneurysm
    C) Pulmonary embolus
    D) Transient ischemic attacks
    E) Angina pectoris
    D
  118. The biologically active conformation of trimeric G-proteins requires
    A) the alpha-subunit to bind GTP.
    B) the hydrolysis of BetaGamma-subunits.
    C) the alpha-subunit to phosphorylate downstream targets
    .D) the alpha-subunit to bind GDP.
    A
  119. Which of the following organs secretes insulinlike growth factor 1 (IGF-1), and what stimulates this secretion?A) Kidney, increasing growth hormone in the blood
    B) Liver, increasing growth hormone in the blood
    C) Liver, increasing TSH in the blood
    D) Anterior pituitary, increasing IGF-RH in the blood
    E) Anterior pituitary, increasing GRH in the blood
    B)

    • IGf-1 is made in liver and stimulated by GH (from anterior pituitary)
    • - binds to IGF-R (tyrosine kinase)
    • - stimulates body growth
  120. In which of the following structures are glycoproteins assembled for extracellular use?
    A) Golgi apparatus
    B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    D) Nucleolemma
    E) Polyribosomes
    • A) GLYCOproteins
    • - protein made in RER, but glycosylated/modified in Golgi for extracellular use
  121. Ingestion of which of the following MOST markedly DECREASES gastric emptying?
    A) Fats
    B) Water
    C) Minerals
    D) Proteins
    E) Carbohydrates
    A)

    - decrease gastric emptying bc CCK (need more time to break down the fats)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. A patient bites down rapidly on an unexpected hard surface while chewing. Cessation of motor unit recruitment in jaw closing muscles is caused by stimulation of

    A) muscle spindles.
    B) nociceptors in the dental pulp.
    C) periodontal mechanoreceptors.
    D) mucosal mechanoreceptors.
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Edema as a result of a hemodynamic disorder commonly occurs in each of the following locations EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) Peritoneal cavity
    B) Subcutaneous tissues
    C) Lungs
    D) Brain
    E) Pancreas
    E) pancreas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. Inorganic crystals in enamel have their long axes parallel to the rods in which of the following?
    A) Tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the centers of the bodies to the periphery
    B) Centers of the bodies of the rods only
    C) Bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly in the tails
    D) Tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the periphery of the bodies to the centers
    E) Periphery of the bodies of the rods only
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Which of the following temporomandibular joint ligaments restricts the movement of the disc away from the condyle during function?
    A) Stylomandibular
    B) Sphenomandibular
    C) Discal
    D) Temporomandibular
    C) Discal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. THe condyle on the laterotrusive side generally rotates about a
    A) vertical axis and translates laterally.
    B) sagittal axis only.
    C) horizontal axis only.
    D) horizontal axis and translates laterally.
    A
  127. Which of the following teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge?
    A) Maxillary first molar
    B) Mandibular first premolar
    C) Primary mandibular first molar
    D) Mandibular second molar
    E) Maxillary first premolar
    B
  128. The main route of calcium excretion from a normal human adult is
    A) urine.
    B) feces.
    C) tears.
    D) saliva.
    E) sweat.
    B) feces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. The first clinical findings in prostatic cancer are often the result of metastasis to which of the following?A) Brain
    B) Testes
    C) Bone
    D) Liver
    E) Adrenal gland
    C
  130. In the sulcular epithelium, small spaces between cells in the stratum spinosum (prickle cell layer) are normally filled by
    A) none of the above.
    B) capillaries that course between cells to approach the free surface.
    C) keratin.
    D) a small amount of tissue fluid.
    D
  131. Excluding the effect of drugs, apnea occurring after hyperventilation of an anesthetized patient results from
    A) increased hydrogen ion concentration.
    B) decreased demand for oxygen.
    C) increased cerebral blood flow.
    D) decreased oxygenation of carotid bodies.
    E) decreased carbon dioxide tension.
    E.

    apnea= temporary cessation of breathing
  132. Which of the following increase with age in dental pulp?
    (a) Vascularity; (b) Size of the pulp chamber; (c) Number of collagen fibers; (d) Calcification within the pulp
    number of collagen fibers and calcification w/in pulp increase
  133. Sounds heard during systole in the antecubital space are produced by
    A) turbulent blood flow through the artery.B) laminar blood flow through the occluded artery C) closure of the aortic valve.D) closure of AV valves.
    A) turbulent blood flow through artery

    • antecubital space= the front of the elbow
    • systole= contraction
  134. Normal hemoglobin concentration is about 15 gm./dl. blood and normal arterial oxygen content is about 20 ml. 02/dl. blood. An anemic individual breathing room air with a hemoglobin concentration of 10 gm./dl. blood is expected to have
    A) normal arterial oxygen tension and reduced arterial oxygen content.
    B) normal arterial oxygen tension and normal arterial oxygen content.
    C) reduced arterial oxygen tension and reduced arterial oxygen content.
    D) reduced arterial oxygen tension and normal arterial oxygen content.
    A)

    Oxygen tension means oxygen partial pressure
    - when you increase O2 pp, you decrease CO2 pp and vice versa
    - partial pressure of O2 will stay the same in anemia, but O2 content will decrease because less Hemoglobin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum because of the presence of
    A) smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only.
    B) simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only.
    C) submucosal glands in the duodenum only.
    D) mucosal glands in the stomach only.
    E) muscularis mucosa in the stomach only.
    D
  136. Tropocollagen is a protein molecule found in
    A) elastic and reticular fibers only.
    B) collagen and elastic fibers only
    C) collagen and reticular fibers only.
    D) collagen, elastic and reticular fibers.
    C) collagen and reticular fibers only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. Cells of the stratum granulosum of thick stratified squamous epithelium characteristically contain
    A) granules that are organelles. B) keratohyalin granules.C) melanin granules.D) keratin granules.
    B) keratohyalin granules
  138. At a muscle-tendon junction, the union is made by
    A) a special thickening of sarcoplasm that unites with collagenous fibrils of the tendon.
    B) myofibrils connecting with collagenous fibrils of the tendon.
    C) an abundance of reticular fibers in the area of the junction.
    D) a continuity of connective tissue sheaths of the muscle with those of the tendon.
    D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. The number of roots that are formed is determined by the
    A) thickness of the cervical loop.
    B) number of discontinuities developed in the root sheath.
    C) number of root sheaths developed by the enamel organ.
    D) number of medial ingrowths of the cervical loop.
    D) # of medial ingrowths of the cervical loop--> 3 of roots

    # of discontinuities developed in the root sheath--> determines ACCESSORY CANALS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. Which of the following are mobilized when a cell produces an excessive amount of protein?
    A) All of the above B) Lipofuscin granulesC) LysosomesD) MitochondriaE) Rough endoplasmic reticula
    C) lysosomes to degrade the excess
  141. The alveolar bone proper (cribriform plate) usually consists of
    A) lamellar bone only.B) bundle bone and lamellar bone. C) bundle bone only.D) woven bone.
    B) bundle bone and lamellar bone
  142. Enamel spindles are formed by
    A) odontoblasts.B) cracks.C) hypoplastic rods.D) hypocalcified rods. E) ameloblasts.
    A) odontoblasts


    enamel spindles- odontoblastic processes that extend into enamel (trapped by enamel); can reach the surface and cause some sensitivity

    enamel tufts- small enamel tufts that extend into enamel from CEJ

    • enamel lamellae- hypocalcified enamel defects- cell debris and enamel proteins that extend to surface
    • - an area that bacteria can enter
  143. Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?
    A) Decreased albumin
    B) Elevated serum lipase
    C) Decreased serum amylase
    D) Elevated alkaline phosphatase.
    B) elevated serum lipase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. A complication of peptic ulcer disease that accounts for the majority of deaths is
    A) bleeding.
    B) surgical complication.
    C) malignant transformation.
    D) perforation.
    E) obstruction from edema or scarring.
    D) Perforation

    90% caused by H. pylori

    #1 complication is bleeding

    #1 cause of death is perforation (peritonitis)

    - can penetrate liver and pancreas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. A cross section at midroot of a permanent mandibular central incisor is likely to show that the pulp cavity is
    A) divided into two canals.
    B) almost round.
    C) flattened faciolingually.
    D) flattened mesiodistally.
    E) shaped much the same as that of a maxillary central incisor.
    D) bc wider faciolingually
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. Which of the following permanent teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge?
    A) Mandibular first molar
    B) Maxillary second premolar
    C) Mandibular first premolar
    D) Maxillary first molar
    E) Mandibular second premolar
    F) Mandibular second molar
    C
  147. In a normal, healthy mouth, the interdental papilla that is the shortest cervicoincisally (cervico-occlusally) is between mandibular
    A) canine and first premolar.
    B) central incisors.
    C) first and second premolars.
    D) second premolar and first molar.
    E) lateral incisor and canine.
    F) central and lateral incisors.
    D) 2nd premolar and 1st molar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. A patient with which of the following diseases is least likely to show "clubbing" of fingers and cyanotic nail beds?
    A) Congestive heart failure
    B) Chronic pulmonary disease
    C) Polycythemia
    D) Systemic lupus erythematosus.
    E) Congenital heart disease
    • Associated w/
    • - lung disease
    • - heart disease
    • - GI and hepatobiliary
    • - hyperthyroidism
  149. In the intercuspal position, the cusp tip of the permanent maxillary canine is in direct alignment with which anatomic feature of the mandibular teeth?
    A) Interproximal space
    B) Facial embrasure
    C) Distal ridge of the cusp of the mandibular canine
    D) Mesial ridge of the facial cusp of the mandibular first premolar
    E) Incisal embrasure
    B.
  150. Pronounced developmental grooves are usually associated with embrasures between permanent:
    (a) maxillary central and lateral incisors; (b) maxillary lateral incisors and canines; (c) maxillary canines and first premolars; (d) maxillary first and second premolars; (e) mandibular canines and first premolars; (f) mandibular first and second premolars; (g) mandibular second premolars and first molars; (h) mandibular first and second molars.
    A) (c) onlyB) (d) onlyC) (g) onlyD) (b) onlyE) (d) and (f)F) (a) onlyG) (c) and (e)
    G) C and E

    • - mesial marginal groove on max 1st premolar
    • - mesiolingual developmental grove on mand 1st premolar

  151. The drawing is a cross section at the cervical line of what permanent tooth?
    A) Mandibular central incisor
    B) Mandibular canine
    C) Maxillary lateral incisor
    D) Mandibular first premolar
    A) mandibular central
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. A primary mandibular second molar differs from a permanent mandibular first molar in that a primary mandibular second molar
    A) is darker in color.
    B) has a larger occlusal surface.
    C) has roots that are more divergent.
    D) is larger in size.
    E) has a form peculiar to itself.
    C) bc the permanent premolar grows inbetween the roots
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. The most common cause of a massive hematemesis in alcoholics is
    A) esophageal varices.
    B) acute gastritis.
    C) acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis.
    D) peptic ulcer.
    E) Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
    A) esophageal varices
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

  154. Viewed anteriorly, which diagram represents a chewing stroke?
    4

  155. The sketch represents the
    A) mesial view of a permanent mandibular third molar.
    B) distal view of a permanent mandibular first molar.
    C) distal view of a permanent mandibular second molar
    .D) mesial view of a permanent mandibular first molar.
    E) mesial view of a permanent mandibular second molar.
    B
  156. In an ideal intercuspal position, the distolingual cusp of a permanent maxillary first molar opposes the
    A) lingual sulcus of the mandibular first molar.
    B) facial embrasure between mandibular first and second molars.
    C) mesial fossa of the mandibular second molar.
    D) mesial marginal ridge area of the mandibular second molar.
    E) central fossa of the mandibular first molar.
    D
  157. Bacteria of which of the following genera have a limited range of habitats in the oral cavity ?
    (a) Treponema; (b) Bacteroides; (c) Actinomyces (d) Streptococcus
    A and B

    Can't Breath Air= anaerobic

    • Bacteriodes
    • Treponema= motile spirochete that is anaerobic
    • Actinomyces- anaerobic or facultatively anaerobic
  158. Features of the herpes simplex virus type 1 virion surface include
    A) an envelope synthesized de novo.
    B) none of the above.
    C) an envelope acquired by budding through the nuclear membrane.
    D) no envelope.
    E) an envelope acquired by budding through the cytoplasmic membrane.
    C)

  159. Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrows on the sketch represent the path taken by the
    A) lingual cusp of second premolar and the mesiolingual cusp of first molar.
    B) cusp of canine and facial cusp of first premolar.
    C) facial cusp of second premolar and the mesiofacial cusp of first molar.
    D) facial cusps of premolars.
    E) lingual cusps of premolars.
    D
  160. In which of the following areas is the alveolar process the thinnest?
    A) Facial to the maxillary second molars
    B) Lingual to the maxillary central incisors
    C) Lingual to the mandibular first molars
    D) Lingual to the maxillary second molars
    E) Lingual to the maxillary canines
    F) Facial to the mandibular central incisors
    F
  161. The protrusive pathway of mandibular cusps on maxillary posterior teeth is toward the
    A) lingual.B) None of the above C) mesial.D) distal.E) facial.
    C mesial
  162. In the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential to contact both anterior and posterior antagonists?
    A) Mandibular canine
    B) Mandibular lateral incisor
    C) Maxillary canine
    D) Maxillary lateral incisor
    C. maxillary canine
  163. Phage conversion is responsible for
    A) antigenic phase variation.
    B) transduction of bacteria.
    C) production of erythrogenic toxin by Streptococcus pyogenes.
    D) ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen.
    E) production of B-galactosidase
    C)

    Phage conversion= Lysogenic conversion
    - when a temperate bacteriophage (virus that infects bacteria) induces a change in phenotype of the bacteria infected--> increases the pathogenic capability of the bacteria/host

    - can later turn into lytic phase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. Calcification of the roots of the primary dentition is normally completed at what age?
    A) 7-8 years
    B) 5-6 years
    C) None of the above
    D) 3-4 years
    E) 1-2 years
    D) 3-4 yrs

    - roots are 50% calcified at time of eruption
  165. Which of the following permanent teeth is least likely to have a divided pulp canal?
    A) Mandibular lateral incisor
    B) Maxillary central incisor
    C) Maxillary first premolar
    D) Mandibular first premolar
    E) Mandibular central incisor
    B) Maxillary central incisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valve abnormality who is allergic to penicillin
    is

    A) lincomycin.
    B) tetracycline.
    C) streptomycin.
    D) ampicillin.
    E) erythromycin.
    E) erythromycin

    - a macrolide w/ antimicrobial spectrum similar to or slightly wider than penicillin
    - used for people w/ allergy to pen
    - inhibits protein synthesis by bacteria by binding 50S ribosome

    - *** CAUSES GI DISTURBANCES- DIARRHEA, NAUSEA, AB PAIN bc it increases motilin secretion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. Most rickettsial diseases produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae
    A) produce potent exotoxins.
    B) are particularly destructive to cutaneous tissues.
    C) are destructive for endothelial cells.
    D) are primarily neurotropic and cause extensive damage in certain CNS centers.
    C) destructive for endothelial cells

    Rickettsia
    - motile, Gram (-), non spore-forming, highly pleomorphic bacteria
    - OBLIGATE intracellular parasites that usually depend on growth and replicated in endothelial cells of host
    - susceptible to tetracycline
    - carried as parasites by many ticks, fleas, lice

    - Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
    - Rickettsia Typhi
    - Rickettsia Prowezaki (lice)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. In the mandibular arch, the greatest lingual inclination of the crown from its root is seen in a permanent
    A) lateral incisor.B) canine.C) central incisor.D) third molar.E) first premolar.
    E) 1st premolar
  169. The most acceptable conditions for complete sterilization by autoclaving are
    A) 5 minutes at 275° F. (135° C.) and 15 lbs. of pressure.
    B) 20 minutes at 250° F (121° C) and 15 lbs. of pressure.
    C) 20 minutes at 250° F. (121° C.) and 10 lbs. of pressure.
    D) 15 minutes at 275° F. (135° C.) and 10 lbs. of pressure.
    B)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. In an ideal intercuspal position, a permanent mandibular lateral incisor opposes the:
    (a) distal marginal ridge of a maxillary central incisor;
    (b) mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary lateral incisor;
    (c) distal marginal ridge of a maxillary lateral incisor;
    (d) mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary canine;
    (e) maxillary lateral incisor 2-3 mm. cervically to the incisal edge;
    (f) maxillary lateral incisor at the incisal edge.
    A) (c), (d) and (e) B) (a), (b) and (f)C) (a) and (b) onlyD) (a), (b) and (e)E) (b) only
    a,b,e
  171. The lingual cusp of a mandibular first premolar contacts the
    A) mesial incline plane of the lingual cusp of a first premolar
    .B) mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary first premolar.
    C) cingulum of a maxillary canine.
    D) None of the above
    E) lingual embrasures of a maxillary canine and a maxillary first premolar.
    D) none of the above! the lingual cusp of 1st molar is nonfunctional (acts most closely to the cingulum of a canine)
  172. Which of the following is characterized by a collapse of alveoli?

    A) Emphysema
    B) Atelectasis
    C) Pneumonia
    D) Bronchiectasis.
    E) Empyema
    • B) Atelectasis
    • - lack of gas exchange w/ lung alveoli due to alveolar collapse or fluid consolidation
    • - may occur as post operative complication OR surfactant deficiency

    - in premature neonates: causes infant respiratory distress syndrome

    • cough, but not prominent
    • chest pain
    • breathing difficulty
    • low oxygen saturation- amount of Hb saturated w. O2
    • pleural effusion (transudate type)
    • cyanosis (late sign)
    • increased heart rate
  173. Infants are routinely immunized against diseases caused by:
    (a) Brucella abortus; (b) Bordetella pertussis; (c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae; (d) Clostridium tetani; (e) Hemophilus influenzae.

    A) (b), (c) and (d)B) (b), (d) and (e)C) (c), (d) and (e).D) (a), (b) and (c)E) (a), (c) and (e)
    B,C,D
  174. The primary function of the dental pulp is to
    A) protect the periodontium.
    B) provide sensation.
    C) assure root-end closure.
    D) form dentin.
    E) provide nutrition.
    D. form dentin
  175. Hepatitis B

    1. Anti-HBs and HBs-antigen
    2. Anti-HBc and Anti-HBs
    3. Anti-HBs no Anti-HBc

    window period- have Anti-HBc but not Anti-HBs
    • 1. Anti-HBs and HBs-antigen= person is a carrier
    • 2. Anti-HBc and Anti-HBs= person was infected, but immune system fought it off
    • 3. Anti-HBs no Anti-HBc= person was immunized window period- have Anti-HBc but not Anti-HBs
  176. In cases of delayed resorption of primary incisors, the permanent incisors may be expected to erupt
    A) facial to the normal arch form
    B) distal to the normal arch position.
    C) lingual to the normal arch form.
    D) mesial to the normal arch position.
    C) lingual
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. Which of the following teeth is most likely to resist caries?
    A) Maxillary lateral incisor
    B) Mandibular canine
    C) Mandibular first premolar
    D) Maxillary central incisor
    B) mandibular canine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. Based upon morphology, a mesio-occlusal (Class II) cavity preparation would be most difficult in which of the following teeth?
    A) Permanent mandibular first molar
    B) Primary mandibular first molar
    C) Permanent maxillary second molar
    D) Primary mandibular second molar
    B because the pulp chambers are higher up into cusp tip and easier to hit the pulp
  179. The roots of mandibular first premolars are :
    (a) flattened faciolingually;
    (b) broader facially than lingually;
    (c) frequently sharply curved distally;
    (d) usually free of marked distal curvature;
    (e) frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces.
    B,D,E
  180. In healing of a fracture, which of the following will prevent favorable reconstruction and alignment of bone ? (a) Formation of pseudoarthrosis;
    (b) Functional remodeling of the procallus by osteoblasts and osteoclasts;
    (c) Formation of new bone at the site of fracture;
    (d) Presence of sequestrum;
    (e) Organization of a hematoma at the site of fracture
    (a) and (d)


    Sequestrum- a piece of dead bone that has become separated during the process of necrosis from normal/sound bone.
  181. In a cervical cross section, which premolar(s) sometimes exhibit a root outline and a pulp chamber floor outline that are both kidney-shaped?
    A) All premolars
    B) Maxillary second
    C) Mandibular second
    D) Maxillaryfirst
    E) Mandibular first
    • D. maxillary 1st premolar
    • - has 2 roots
    • - kidney shaped bc interradicular groove on the mesial
  182. Ketone Bodies
    • Synthesis of ketone bodies in liver when E stores are low
    • - VERY IMPORTANT for brain in starved state bc brain only uses glucose for E

    • - in LIVER: free FA's and amino acids metabolized to form ketone bodies
    • - beta oxidation of alpha-keto acids derived from amino acids
    • - occurs in mitochondrial matrix of hepatocytes (liver)
    • - acetyl-coA--> ketone bodies in starved state

    • Process:
    • acetyl CoA-- (cholesterol)--(HMG COA synthase= RLS)> acetoacetate--> beta-hydroxybutyrate (both can be reconverted back to acetyl-CoA and used in TCA cycle in other tissues)
    • - 3 ketone bodies: acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, acetone (acetone not used for E bc can't be reconverted in other tissues back to acetyl-CoA to be used in TCA cycle)--> excreted in urine; causes fruity breath)

    - Ketosis= ketone bodies accumulate (get ketoacidosis and diabetic coma)
  183. In cervical cross-section, the root of a mandibular canine is described as
    A) flattened in a mesiodistal direction.
    B) triangular.
    C) broader mesiodistally on the lingual than on the facial.
    D) roughly conical.
    A) flattened in the mesiodistal direction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. Which of the following is characteristic of primary maxillary canines?
    A) Cusp is low and rounded.
    B) The mesioincisal cusp ridge is shorter than the distoincisal cusp ridge.
    C) The mesioincisal cusp ridge is longer than the distoincisal cusp ridge.
    D) Crown height < mesiodistal width.
    From the facial aspect:

    In the permanent max canine, the mesial cusp ridge is shorter than the distal

    • In the primary max canine, the mesialincisal slope is longer than the distoincisal
    • - longer and sharper cusp than permanent max canine
  185. Frequency of impulse activity in the afferent nerve from a muscle spindle (Group a afferent fibers) is increased by a (an)
    (a) relaxation of intrafusal muscle fibers;
    (b) increased activity in gammaefferent fibers;
    (c) passive stretch of the muscle.

    A) (c) onlyB) (b) onlyC) (b) and (c)D) (a) and (c)E) (a) onlyF) (a) and (b)
    • B and C
    • Gamma motorneuron - A muscle spindle, with γ motor and Ia sensory fibers
    • A stretch reflex is a muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle. It is a monosynaptic reflex which provides automatic regulation of skeletal muscle length.

    - 1a afferent sensory fiber (proprioception) are parallel to contractile muscle fibers so they respond to length and stretch

    • - fusimotor system= muscle spindles and gamma motoneurons--> the system the CNS uses to control and modify spindle activity; proprioceptive info
    • - gamma motoneurons regulate gain of stretch reflex by adjusting level of tension in intrafusal muscle fibers of muscle spindle
  186. Which of the following substances represents an unsaturated fatty acid?A) CholineB) OleateC) PalmitateD) StearateE) Cholesterol
    B) Oleate
  187. Each of the following is involved in gene cloning EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

    A) Restriction nucleasesB) DNA ligaseC) Reverse transcriptaseD) DNA polymerase IE) RNA polymerase
    E) RNA polymerase
  188. From the incisal aspect, the crown of a maxillary canine normally exhibits which of the following?
    A) A distal portion that displays some concavity in its facial outline
    B) A trapezoidal outline
    C) Less faciolingual thickness than the crown of a mandibular canine
    D) A mesial portion that is thinner faciolingually than the distal portion
    E) Symmetry between its mesial and distal portions
    • A)
    • very prominent distal concavity from distal contact--> CEJ
  189. During swallowing, muscular contraction results in movements that seal off the oropharynx from the nasopharynx. Which of the following muscles cause movements that result in a fold in the posterior wall of the pharynx?
    A) Palatopharyngeus
    B) Tensor veli palatini
    C) Levator veli palatini
    D) Musculus Uvulae
    E) Palatoglossus
    A) Palatopharyngeus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. Which of the following primary teeth would exhibit a prominent cervical ridge on both the facial and lingual surfaces?

    A) A
    B) J
    C) F
    D) T
    E) L
    C) F

    maxillary central incisor
    - no mamelons
    - prominent facial and lingual cervical ridges
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. Which of the following explains why enamel is harder than bone?
    A) Enamel contains more collagen.
    B) Enamel crystals have more surface area.
    C) Enamel contains more magnesium and carbonate.
    D) Enamel contains amelogenins in its organic matrix.
    E) Enamel crystals are larger and more firmly packed.
    E)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  192. in an aqueous solution at pH 7, a peptide containing 1 amino group side chain and 2 carboxyl group side chains would have which of the following net charges?
    A) 1-B) 2-C) 1+D) 0E) 2+
    A) -1

    pKa of amino= 9 (+1 in this situation)

    pKa of carboxyl group= 4.4 (-2 in this situation)
  193. In which of the following teeth is the mesial portion MOST distinctly separated from the remainder of the occlusal table by a transverse ridge?
    A) Mandibular second premolar
    B) Primary maxillary first molar
    C) Mandibular first molar
    D) Primary mandibular second molar
    E) Primary mandibular first molar
    • E) primary 1st molar
    • - has prominent transverse ridge that connects MB and ML cusps
    • - most unique tooth
    • - most difficult primary tooth to restore
    • - no central fossa; only mesial and distal triangular fossae
    • - prominent buccal cervical ridge
    • - well developed mesial marginal ridge
    • - 4 cusps; MB largest; ML sharpest
  194. On permanent teeth, the greatest incisal curvature of a cervical line is on which surface of which incisor? (surface --> incisor)
    A) Distal surface --> Maxillary lateral
    B) Mesial surface --> Mandibular central
    C) Mesial surface --> Mandibular lateral
    D) Distal surface --> Mandibular central
    E) Mesial surface --> Maxillary central
    E)


    most contoured CEJ on mesial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. Which of the following enzymes converts trypsinogen to trypsin?

    A) Peptidase B) Secretin C) Pepsin D) Enterokinase
    D) Enterokinase/Enteropeptidase

    • - produced by duodenum wall (Crypts of Lieberkuhn) whenever ingested food enters duodenum
    • - converts trypsinogen to active form, indirectly activating of pancreatic digestive enzymes
  196. From the facial view, the maxillary first molar has its lingual root apex in line with which of the following?A) Mesiofacial cusp tip
    B) Mesiodistal diameter midpoint
    C) Distofacial line angle
    D) Distofacial cusp tip
    E) Facial groove
    E) facial groove
  197. Peripheral (lower motor neuron) lesions of cranial nerve VII will cause which of the following?
    A) An ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of the facial musculature
    B) A contralateral paralysis of only the upper facial muscles
    C) A contralateral paralysis of only the lower facial muscles
    D) An ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of only the lower facial muscles
    E) A contralateral paralysis of the facial musculature
    A)

    LMN lesion- ipsilateral paralysis of upper and lower face; loss of corneal reflex= Belly's Palsy

    UMN lesion (central lesion to facial motor nucleus from stroke)- contralateral lower face weakness only
    - can still raise eyebrows on affected side bc bilateral innervation to upperface muscles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. Which of the following represents the location of the cell bodies of pain fibers in the glossopharyngeal nerve?A) Trigeminal (semilunar) ganglion
    B) Superior ganglion of cranial nerve IX
    C) Spinal nucleus of cranial nerve V
    D) Nucleus ambiguous
    E) Otic ganglion
    - sensory fibers of CN IX are located in the superior ganglion (jugular foramen) and inferior petrosal ganglion (jugular foramen)
  199. Which of the following maxillary teeth has the largest cervico-occlusal crown height?
    A) First molar
    B) First premolar
    C) Second molar
    D) Second premolar
    B

  200. The midroot cross-sectional diagram illustrates the root of which maxillary molar?
    A) Left third
    B) Right first
    C) Right third
    D) Left first
    B) right 1st
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. Which of the following teeth is MOST likely to have a distal coronal concavity that can pose special problems in matrix placement?
    A) Maxillary first molar
    B) Maxillary first premolar
    C) Mandibular first premolar
    D) Mandibular first molar
    A)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. Calcification of the mandibular third molars generally begins at
    A) 3-4 years.
    B) 14-16 years.
    C) 11-13 years.
    D) 5-7 years.
    E) 8-10 years.
    E) 8-10 yrs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. Which of the following nerves is the MOST likely to become injured in fractures of the mid-humeral shaft?A) Radial
    B) Musculocutaneous
    C) Ulnar
    D) Median
    E) Axillary
    A) radial, extrinsic extensors of wrists and hands, cutaneous supply to back of hand

    • supplies triceps brachii
    • -originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus with roots from C5, C6, C7, C8 & T1.
    • - The radial nerve divides into a deep branch (which becomes the posterior interosseous nerve), and continues as the superficial branch which goes on to innervate the dorsum (back) of the hand.
    • - After giving off branches to the long and medial heads of the triceps brachii, it enters a groove on the humerus, the radial sulcus.
  204. The lymph vessels that drain both dental arches connect directly with which of the following nodes?

    A) Sublingual B) Retropharyngeal C) Superficial cervical D) Submandibular E) Deep cervical
    D) Submandibular
  205. From a proximal view, which of the following describes the crown outline on a mandibular posterior tooth?A) It is designed to allow for a minimum amount of chewing effficiency on the coronal surface of the tooth.
    B) It is usually rhomboidal and has a design flaw that encourages cusp fracture.
    C) It is usually trapezoidal and has a design flaw that encourages cusp fracture.
    D) It is designed to protect against root fracture by having the crown structure serve as root support
    B
  206. Alpha-ketoglutarate, oxygen, and ascorbic acid are essential for which of the following processes?
    A) Hydroxylation of proline
    B) Incorporation of proline
    C) Gamma-Carboxylation of proline
    D) Activation of procollagen peptidase
    E) Oxidative deamination of lysine
    A)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. Which of the following teeth have long axes positioned with their root apices facial and their crowns lingual?

    A) Maxillary premolars
    B) Maxillary incisors
    C) Mandibular molars
    D) Mandibular incisors
    E) Maxillary molars
    C) mandibular Molars
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. A derivative of vitamin K is the coenzyme for which of the following?
    A) Carboxylation of glutamate side chains
    B) Cross-linking of fibrinogen
    C) Esterification of retinol
    D) Hydrolysis of peptide bonds
    E) Production of menadiol
    A)

    Vit K needed to carboxylate glutamate residues to form gamma-carboxyglutamate residues--> allows them to bind Ca2+ needed in blood coagulation (Factors II, VII, IX, X. protein C and S)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. Antidiuretic hormone is PRODUCED by cells that reside in which of the following structures, cells or areas?A) Pars intermedia
    B) Acidophils of the pars distalis
    C) Pars nervosa
    D) Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
    E) Basophils of the pars distalis
    D
  210. The pyramids contain
    A) upper and lower motor neuron fibers.
    B) lower motor neuron fibers only.
    C) pain fibers.
    D) upper motor neuron fibers only.
    E) sensor fibers.
    D
  211. Which of the following anterior primary rami form the medial cordof the brachial plexus?
    A) C-8 and T-1
    B) T-2 and T-3
    C) C-5, C-6, and C-7
    D) C-4 and C-5
    E) C-6 and C-7
    A)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers to the head have their cell bodies in the
    A) superior cervical ganglia.
    B) gray rami communicantes of the thoracic region.
    C) intermediolateral horns of the thoracic spinal cord.
    D) paravertebral ganglia.
    E) cervicothoracic ganglia.
    C
  213. In the photomicrograph below of a ground section of a tooth viewed by transmitted light, some dentinal tubules appear black because they

    A) have become filled with air during sectioning.
    B) contain deeply stained odontoblastic processes.
    C) are filled with minerals.
    D) are filled with bacteria.
    E) are filled with blood.
    A
  214. Fiber tracts passing from the thalamus to the cortex are found in which of the following?
    A) Internal capsule
    B) Medial lemniscus
    C) Lateral lemniscus
    D) Anterior commissure
    E) Corpus callosum
    A
  215. Which of the following is the MOST numerous cell type in the normal dental pulp?
    A) Odontoblast
    B) Macrophage
    C) Mast cell
    D) Adipocyte
    E) Fibroblast
    E
  216. Which of the following represents the MOST vascular portion of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint?
    A) Posterior thick zone (band)
    B) Bilaminar zone
    C) Anterior thick zone (band)
    D) Intermediate thin zone (band)
    B
  217. Which of the following organs is the NEAREST to the right kidney?
    A) Stomach
    B) Colon
    C) Pancreas
    D) Duodenum
    E) Spleen
    B
  218. The prochordal plate consists of
    A) the cardiogenic mesoderm and the neurectoderm.
    B) the cloacal membrane and the overlying amnion.
    C) endoderm of the roof of the yolk sac and embryonic ectoderm
    .D) embryonic endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm.
    E) a circular area anterior to the notochord in which the endoderm is fused to the embryonic mesoderm.
    C
  219. Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament offer the MOSTresistance to movement of the tooth in an apical direction?
    A) Oblique
    B) Apical
    C) Interradicular
    D) Alveolar crest
    E) Horizontal
    A) Oblique resists intrusive movements and rotational forces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  220. In the APICAL direction
  221. On a comparative basis, bone and cellular cementum are similar in that both
    A) contain cells in lacunae with canaliculi that extend primarily toward the nutritional source.
    B) are deposited throughout life, acquire blood vessels during aging, and contain similar collagenous fibers.
    C) are difficult to resorb, heal well, and contain cement lines.
    D) contain concentric patterns, have Volkmann's canals, and can be cancellous.
    A
  222. The core of a microvillus consists of which of the following?
    A) Vimentin filaments
    B) Microfilaments
    C) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules
    D) 9 triplets of microtubules
    E) Intermediate filaments
    B
  223. The blood-testis barrier is maintained by
    A) myoepithelial cells.
    B) spermatogonia.
    C) Leydig cells.
    D) spermatocytes.
    E) Sertoli cells.
    E
  224. Oxyphil cells are present in which of the following?
    A) Fundic stomach
    B) Parathyroid gland
    C) Spleen
    D) Thymus
    E) Neurohypophysis
    D
  225. Which of the following is the nerve that supplies the mimetic muscles?
    A) Hypoglossal
    B) Facial
    C) Vagus
    D) Trigeminal
    E) Spinal accessory
    B) mimetic muscles= facial muscles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. Which of the following is the posterior limit of the vestibular side of the cheek?
    A) Sulcus terminalis
    B) Sphenomandibular ligament
    C) Stylomandibular ligament
    D) Retromolar pad
    E) Pterygomandibular raphe
    E
  227. Para-keratinized oral mucosa is often found on which of the following?
    A) Oral surface of the soft palate
    B) Floor of the mouth
    C) Attached gingiva
    D) Ventral surface of the tongue
    E) Skin surface of the lips
    C) attached gingiva
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  228. Which of the following represents a popular theory for the force that is considered to be the MOST responsible for active tooth eruption?
    A) Crestal bone formation pulls the tooth.
    B) Cells and fibers in the developing PDL pull the tooth toward the oral cavity.
    C) Apical fundal bone formation pushes the tooth.
    D) Dentin formation in the root pushes the tooth into the oral cavity.
    E) Vascular pressure within the pulp pushes the tooth intraorally.
    B
  229. Which of the following ligaments helps resist posterior movement of the mandibular condyles?A) Temporomandibular
    B) Anterior cruciate
    C) Sphenomandibular
    D) Stylomandibular
    E) Pterygomandibular raphe
    A)
  230. Which of the following structures runs directly adjacent to, and parallel with, the median nerve in the arm?A) Brachial artery
    B) Ulnar artery
    C) Radial artery
    D) Medial brachial cutaneous nerve
    E) Cephalic vein
    A
  231. Structure of Thymus
    • - made up of lobules held together by areolar tissue
    • - enclosed by capsule
    • - each follicle has:
    • Illu thymus.jpg
    • 1. cortex- mainly lymphoid cells; earliest T cell dev (thymocyte)
    • 2. medulla - Hassall's corpuscle (remains of the epithelial tubes from 3rd branchial pouch)
    • - less lymphoid cells
    • *** Thymus and spleen only have efferent lymphatic vessels

    • 2 origins of thymus:
    • - endoderm (3rd branchial pouch)
    • - hematopoeitic stem cells
  232. Which of the following represents the normal substrate of thrombin?
    A) Thromboplastin
    B) Fibrin
    C) Fibrinogen
    D) Prothrombin
    E) Thrombospondin
    C

    Substrate= the substance on which an enzyme acts

    Prothrombin--> thrombin converts fibrinogen--> fibrin in the clotting cascade
  233. Epinephrine causes an elevation in cAMP levels in muscle cells which in turn activate
    A) ATPase.
    B) adenyl cyclase.
    C) glycogen phosphorylase.
    D) glycogen synthetase.
    E) glycogen phosphorylase phosphatase.
    C) glycogen phosphorylase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. Which of the following noncollagenous protein components BESTcharacterizes dentin matrix?
    A) Osteonectin
    B) Laminin
    C) Fibronectin
    D) Phosphophoryn
    E) Vimentin
    • D)
    • - one of the proteins formed from dentin sialophosphoprotein
    • - MOST ACIDIC protein ever discovered
    • - aa sequence makes it HIGHLY (-)--> attracts A LOT of Ca2+ for dentin

    • - dentin sialphosphoprotein- only protein produced uniquely by odontoblasts; non collagenous protein broken into:
    • 1. dentin phosphoprotein
    • 2. dentin sialoprotein
    • 3. dentin glycoprotein
  235. Intravenous injections of KCl solution would increase the secretion of which of the following?
    A) Aldosterone
    B) Insulin
    C) Cortisol
    D) Calcitonin
    E) Parathyroid hormone
    A) Aldosterone- uptake of Na+ from DCT of nephron
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  236. The movement of Ca++ across a membrane is characterized by which of the following?
    A) Maintains Ca++ concentration very much higher in the cell than in the extracellular fluid
    B) A facilitated diffusion
    C) An example of a cotransport system
    D) In many cell membranes involves a Ca++–Na+countertransport system
    D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. Which of the following is necessary for de novo synthesis of cholesterol?
    A) NADP+
    B) NA+
    C) FADH2
    D) NADH
    E) NADPH
    • E) NAPH (reduced)
    • - used in anabolic processes (steroid and FA synthesis) as a supply of reducing equivalents

    • RLS in synthesis of cholesterol: HMG CoA Reductase
    • -converts HMG-CoA--> mevalonate

    - 2/3 plasma cholesterol is esterified by LCAT (lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase)
  238. The enzyme catalyzing the rate-controlling step in the de novosynthesis of fatty acids is regulated allosterically by the positive modulator

    A) cyclic AMP.
    B) ATP.
    C) oxaloacetate
    .D) citrate.
    E) NADPH.
    D) citrate

    • - citrate builds up in TCA when have a high E state- want to make FAs when have excess E
    • - citrate also inhibits glycolysis
  239. Which of the following controls the excitability of the muscle spindle?
    A) Gamma efferent system
    B) Alpha efferent discharge
    C) Length of the extrafusal fibers
    D) Load on the muscle
    • A) gammer efferent
    • - stretch reflex
    • - muscle spindle= sensory receptor in belly of extrafusal fibers (muscle)
    • - length of muscle

    • - afferent Ia and II
    • - 3 types of intrafusal fibers:
    • 1. nuclear bag (length and tension)- dynamic fast type Ia
    • 2. nuclear bag- static
    • 3. nuclear chain fibers (length and tension)- slow type II afferent
    • - muscle spindles receive efferent= gamma innervation--> causes shortening of muscle spindle
  240. Under strict anaerobic conditions, the catabolism of one glucose molecule would yield a net of
    A) 2 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules.
    B) 4 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules.
    C) 4 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules.
    D) 2 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules.
    D)

    ANAEROBIC- Lactic fermentation:
    - pyruvate converted to lactic acid via LACTATE DEHYDROGENASE
    - need to convert NADH--> NAD+ so glycolysis can continue
    - MUSCLE TISSUE (working out) and some BACTERIA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  241. Which of the following represents a polyunsaturated fatty acid that is commonly found in animal cell membranes?

    A) Oleic
    B) Lactic
    C) Sialic
    D) Linoleic
    E) Stearic
    D)

    #C's Common Name
    12Lauric acid
    14Myristic acid
    16Palmitic acid

    Unsaturated- drop in MP
    18Stearic acid
    18 Oleic acid
    18Linoleic acid
    18alpha-linolenic acid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  242. GABA increases the permeability of postsynaptic membranes to which of the following ions?
    A) Potassium
    B) Sodium
    C) Magnesium
    D) Calcium
    E) Chloride
    • E) Cl-
    • - most abundant inhibitory NT
  243. Formation of Microfilaments
    • - G-actin= globular actin (individual subunits of actin)
    • - F-actin= G-actin subunits assemble into filamentous polymers
    • - 2 parallel f-actin strands make up a microfilament (of cytoskeleton)
    • - requires ATP to transform G-actin--> f-actin
  244. Which of the following sweeteners is non-nutritive as well as non-cariogenic?
    A) Sorbitol
    B) Saccharin
    C) Maltose
    D) Galactose
    E) D-fructose
    B)

    - artificial sweetener
    - gives no food E
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  245. If the pH becomes lower than the isoelectric point of a protein, then how will the protein respond in an electrophoretic system? It will
    A) migrate to the positive pole
    .B) separate into its different monomeric forms.
    C) remain stationary and unchanged.
    D) migrate to the negative pole.
    E) become denatured.
    D)

    IP= pH at which the protein is neutral
  246. Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by affecting which of the following?
    A) Phosphatase
    B) Enolase
    C) Phosphorylase
    D) Amylase
    B) enolase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  247. Insulin INCREASES the activity of which of the following?
    A) Phosphofructokinase
    B) Glucose-6-phosphatase
    C) Phosphorylase a
    D) Fructose 1-6 diphosphatase
    E) Enolase
    A

    - high E state, insulin stimulates synthesis of ATP from glucose
  248. When arterial pressure increases, pressoreceptors discharge and
    A) cause vasoconstriction throughout the peripheral circulatory system.
    B) excite sympathetic nerves and inhibit parasympathetic nerves.
    C) inhibit tonic activity of sympathetic nerves and excite parasympathetic nerves.
    D) increase cardiac rate and strength of contraction.
    C
  249. The level of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is due principally to the level of which of the following?A) Arginine
    B) Creatine
    C) Uric acid
    D) Ammonia
    E) Urea

    After prolonged acidosis, which of the following represents the nitrogenous product that is excreted in high amounts in the urine?
    A) Aspartic acid
    B) Creatinine
    C) Urea
    D) Uric acid
    E) Ammonia
    • E) Urea
    • E) ammonia
  250. Which of the following are the immediate effects of calcitonin on serum levels of calcium and phosphate?A) Serum calcium decreases, Serum phosphate has no change
    B) Serum calcium has no change, Serum phosphate increases
    C) Serum calcium increases, Serum phosphate increases
    D) Serum calcium decreases, Serum phosphate decreases
    E) Serum calcium increases, Serum phosphate decreases
    D) calcium and phosphate are put back into bone
  251. Most endogenous cholesterol in the liver is usually converted into which of the following?
    A) Steroids
    B) Glucose
    C) Cholic acid
    D) Oxaloacetate
    E) Ketone bodies
    C) Cholic acid

    cholic acid= bile acid
    - produced by liver from cholesterol
    - derivatives are made from cholyl-CoA which forms a conjugate with either glycine, or taurine, yielding glycocholic and taurocholic acid respectively.
    - Cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid are the most important human bile acids
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  252. The ability to concentrate urine varies among animal species. The maximum urine concentration that can be produced by an animal isMOST closely related to which of the following?
    A) Glomerular filtration rate
    B) Diameter of the distal tubule
    C) Renal blood flow
    D) Length of the loop of Henle
    E) Total number of nephrons
    D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  253. In relative insulin insufficiency, acetyl CoA is usually channeled into
    A) gluconeogenesis.
    B) the Krebs cycle.
    C) ketone-body formation.
    D) cholesterol synthesis.
    E) fatty-acid synthesis.
    • C)
    • - insulin insufficiency indicates a post-absorptive state (low serum glucose)
    • - Diabetes pts- low insulin--> get diabetic ketoacidosis bc form ketone bodies for E
  254. The capsule of Streptococcus mutans is an important virulence factor that
    A) is necessary to cause bacteremia.
    B) has proteolytic activity.
    C) enhances oral accumulation.
    D) prevents phagocytic digestion.
    E) causes circulatory collapse.
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  255. Which of the following disorders is LEAST likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with acute appendicitis?

    A) Pelvic inflammatory disease
    B) Crohn's disease
    C) Duodenal peptic ulcer
    D) Gastroenteritis with mesenteric adenitis
    E) Meckel's diverticulitis
    C
  256. Uncomplicated healing of a wound by secondary intention, observed microscopically at three days, is MOST likely to show evidence of which of the following?

    A) Lack of acute inflammation
    B) Ulceration of the epithelial surface
    C) Keloid formation
    D) Granulomatous inflammation
    E) Mature cicatrix
    • B)?
    • Classic model of wound healing:
    • 1. hemostasis
    • 2. inflammatory- bacteria/debris phagocytized and removed
    • 1. PMNs- 1st 2 days + T cells--> cleanse wound
    • 2. Macrophages- after 2 days
    • - essential to wound healing (phagocytize bacteria and damaged tissue)
    • 3. proliferative
    • - angiogenesis by vascular endothelial cells
    • - collagen deposition by fibroblasts
    • - granulation tissue formation (type III)--> replaced later with type I
    • - epithelialization- epithelial cells proliferate and crawl up wound bed to cover
    • - wound contraction by myofibroblasts
    • 4. remodeling - collagen remodeled and realigned along tensions lines; cells no longer needed undergo apoptosis

    • 1. Primary intention- e.g. surgical incision
    • - no/minimal scar formation
    • - wound edges line up
    • 2. Secondary intention- e.g. gingivectomy, gingivoplasty, tooth extraction
    • - granulates--> scar formation- slower healing + wound care
    • 3. Tertiary- e.g. healing of wounds by use of tissue grafts
    • - wound is cleaned and observed; left open
  257. Patients with which of the following malignancies have the poorest prognosis?
    A) Lung cancer
    B) Malignant melanoma
    C) Pancreatic carcinoma
    D) Carcinoma of the colon
    E) Squamous carcinoma of the tongue
    C)

    Pancreatic cancer
    - poor prognosis
    - 3 yr survival rate is 30%
    - "silent killer" bc usually doesn't cause symptoms
    - later symptoms are non-specific: jaundice, pain in upper abdomen, weight loss
    Risk factors:
    - male
    - age
    - smoking
    - obesity
    - diabetes mellitis
    - H. pylori
    - family history
    - gingivitis or perio disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  258. Which of the following is the MOST important function of bacterial pili in causing human infectious disease?A) Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells
    B) Destroying phagocytic macrophages and neutrophils
    C) Making the bacteria motile
    D) Transfering DNA from one bacterium to another
    A)

    • fimbriae= short pilus used to attach bacteria to host surface
    • - mutant bacteria that lack fimbriae can't attach to surface and can't cause disease
    • - found in gram - and gram + bacteria
  259. A patient with rheumatic heart disease is MOST likely to develop congestive heart failure due which of the following?
    A) Cor pulmonale
    B) Heart murmur
    C) Digitalis toxicity
    D) Valvular insufficiency
    E) Aschoff bodies in coronary arteries
    D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  260. Which of the following are directly associated with destruction of glomerular basement membranes in a patient with glomerulonephritis?
    A) IgE antibodies
    B) Eosinophils
    C) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
    D) Lymphokines
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  261. If Type A blood is accidentally transfused into a Type B recipient, the immediate hemolytic reaction would be the result of which of the following?
    A) T cytotoxic cell activation
    B) IgG against the B antigen
    C) IgM against the A antigen
    D) Sensitization to antigens other than A or B
    E) IgA against the A antigen
    C
  262. A patient who has anemia, poorly localized abdominal pain, and wrist and foot drop probably is manifesting a toxic state induced by which of the following?

    A) Mercury
    B) Carbon tetrachloride
    C) Lead
    D) Bismuth
    E) Carbon monoxide
    • D) Lead
    • - pain, muscle weakness, paresthesia, NVD, diarrhea, constipation, poor appetite
    • - black line on gingiva

    • Bismuth
    • - one of the least toxic of the heavy metals
    • - mostly kidney and liver
    • - skin and respiratory irritation
    • - "bismuth line"= black line on gingiva

    • Mercury
    • - peripheral neuropathy- paresthesia, itching, burning pain
    • - skin discoloration- pink cheeks, fingertips toes
    • - blocks breakdown of catecholamines- -> sweating, tachycardia, salivation, HTN
    • - kidney dysfunction, hypotonia of muscle

    • CCl4
    • - CNS
    • - degenerate liver and kidneys--> can lead to cancer
    • - prolonged--> coma and death
  263. Which of the following is the major VIRAL cause of birth defects in infants in developed countries?A) Varicella-zoster
    B) Rubella
    C) Measles
    D) Herpes simplex
    E) Cytomegalovirus
    E) CMV

    TORCHeS
  264. Phage conversion is responsible for which o'f the following?
    A) Transformation of bacteria
    B) Ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen
    C) Production of pyrogenic toxin
    D) Production of beta-galactose
    C)

    Bacteriophage= vector for transduction from one cell to another
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  265. MOST rickettsial diseases can produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae

    A) are destructive for endothelial cells.
    B) are destructive for epithelial cells.
    C) produce potent exotoxins.
    D) cause extensive CNS damage.
    A)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  266. Hereditary angioedema is the result of which the following?
    A) Bare Iymphocytes (no Class I/II antigens)
    B) Developmental arrest of Iymphocytes
    C) Defective VH gene recombination to DJH
    D) Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor
    E) Lack of a thymus
    D)

    - presents in 20's-40s
    - local swelling in subcutaneous tissues
    - doesn't respond to antihistamines, corticosteroids, or Epi

    Cause:
    - deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor
    - C1 inhibitor inhibits C1, Factor XII, and kallikrein--> therefore give rise to vasoactive substances when unregulated

    Tx
    - want to treat the edema, esp if larynx
    - AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  267. Which of the following viral diseases has the LONGESTincubation period?
    A) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
    B) Measles
    C) Rabies
    D) Common cold
    E) Influenza
    C)

    Rabies
    - viral disease
    - causes acute encephalitis
    - travels to brain following peripheral nerves
    - zoonotic- bite from infected animal
    - incubation period is few months in humans--> once reach CNS, symptoms show and fatal within 7 days

    - mania, lethargy, depression, uncontroled excitement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  268. Adult respiratory distress syndrome might be caused by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) Viral pneumonia
    B) Shock
    C) Cigarette smoking
    D) Heroin overdose
    E) Breathing 100 percent O2
    C)

    ARDS "Acute" is more appropriate

    - serious rxn to various injuries of lung
    - severe lung disease
    - inflamm of lung parenchmya= impaired gas exchange--> inflamm, hypoxemia, multiple organ failure
    - often fatal and need to be put in ICU on mechanical ventilation
    - most commonly associated w/ diffuse alveolar damage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  269. Normal clotting time and normal platelet count accompanied by prolonged bleeding time suggest which of the following?
    A) Steatorrhea
    B) Polycythemia vera
    C) Thrombocytopenic purpura
    D) Hemophilia
    E) Excessive aspirin ingestion
    E)

    Aspirin inhibits the COX pathway--> prostaglandins (PCI2 and TXA2)
    - Thromboxane A2 in charge of platelet aggregation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  270. Which of the following bacterial vaccines is given routinely to children in the U.S.A.?
    A) Measles, mumps, rubella
    B) BCG
    C) Cholera
    D) Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus
    E) Polyvalent pneumococcus
    D

    DPT vaccine

    • - diphtheria and tetanus toxoids
    • - killed whole cells of bordetella pertussis
    • - 5 doses btwn 2 months and 5 yrs
  271. Normal human cells contain gene sequences homologous to virus genome sequences known to induce cancer in animals. What term applies to these gene sequences when found in human cells?
    A) Homologous chromosomes
    B) Retroviral genes
    C) Viral oncogenes
    D) Analogous chromosomes
    E) Protooncogenes
    E)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  272. If a foreign antigen enters the body through the skin, which of the following portions of the lymphoid system is the antigen MOSTlikely to reach FIRST?
    A) Liver
    B) Thymus
    C) Spleen
    D) Lymph nodes
    E) Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue
    D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  273. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding glioblastoma multiforme?
    A) It is the most common type of astrocytoma.
    B) Its prognosis is generally more favorable than Grade I astrocytoma.
    C) The tumor is most common before puberty.
    D) It is classified as a type of meningioma.
    E) It is derived from the epithelial lining of the ventricles.
    A)

    - it is a type IV astrocytoma
    - most common primary brain tumor/astrocytoma
    - butterfly glioma bc crosses corpus callosum
    - v. poor prognosis <1 yr survival
    - found in cerebral hemispheres
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  274. The appearance of new strains of human immunodeficiency virus are primarily the result of
    A) errors in translation.
    B) natural selection.
    C) errors in transcription.
    D) genomic recombination
    C
  275. Each of the following is commonly associated with congestive heart failure EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) Anasarca
    B) Ankle edema
    C) Cyanosis
    D) Dyspnea
    E) Passive congestion of the liver
    A)

    "anasarca"= extreme generalized edema
    - widespread swelling of skin due to effusion of fluid into EC space
    - usually caused by renal, liver, heart failure
    Plasmodium falciparum nephrosis edema PHIL 3894 lores.jpg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  276. Rifampin (Rifadin®) is effective in treating active tuberculosis because it targets which of the following pathways?
    A) Transcription
    B) mRNA splicing
    C) Mitosis
    D) Replication
    E) Translation
    A) transcription

    Rifampin
    - bactericidal
    - administered several months w/out a break w/ other drugs to prevent resistance

    - used along w/ isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, streptomycin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  277. A patient bites down rapidly on an unexpected hard surface while chewing. Cessation of motor unit recruitment in jaw closing muscles is caused by stimulation of

    A) mucosal mechanoreceptors.
    B) periodontal mechanoreceptors.
    C) muscle spindles.
    D) nociceptors in the dental pulp.
    B) periodontal mechanoreceptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  278. In hydrocephalus, excess cerebral spinal fluid is found within which of the following?
    A) Cisterna magna
    B) Ventricle
    C) Superior sagittal sinus
    D) Subdural space
    E) Subarachnoid space
    B) ventricle

    - aka "water on the brain"
    - abnormal accumulation of CSF in ventricles of brain
    - increases intracranial pressure in skull
    - enlarged head
    - convulsion/seizure
    - mental disability
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  279. Which of the following primary grooves uniting in the distal pit on the occlusal surface of the mandibular second molar represents the one that normally has no counterpart in the distal pit of the first molar?
    A) DF triangular
    B) Distal marginal
    C) DL triangular
    D) Distolingual
    E) Distal portion of the central
    A) DF Triangular groove

    bc of the presence of the small distal cusp on the mandibular 1st molar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  280. Which of the following conditions represents an intoxication rather than an infection?
    A) Botulism
    B) Chancroid
    C) Bacteroidosis
    D) Salmonellosis septicemia
    E) Anthrax
    A) Botulism

    aka botulinis intoxication
    - paralytic disease caused by botulinum toxin from C. botulinum (gram + anaerobic spore forming rod)
    - bacteria colonizes the GI tract, enters from wounds, or from food (esp canned food)
    - babies- "floppy baby syndrome"
    - toxin is killed by heat
    - paralysis usually starts at face and spread to limbs; can get respiratory failure
    - toxin inhibits Ach release at NMJ
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  281. Which of the following best describes the cervical margin on the facial crown surface of the maxillary first molar?
    A) Evenly convex toward the apexE) Straight
    B) Irregularly convex toward the apex
    C) Evenly convex toward the occlusal
    D) Irregularly convex toward the occlusal
    B) Irregularly convex toward apex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  282. Which of the following teeth represents the one most likely to present with three roots?
    A) Mandibular second premolar
    B) Mandibular canine
    C) Maxillary second premolar
    D) Mandibular central incisor
    E) Maxillary first premolar
    C) Maxillary 1st premolar

    - this tooth normally has 2 roots (facial and lingual)
    - kidney shaped bc of the interradicular groove
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  283. A patient has an extremely wide, notched tooth in the mandibular left central incisor position. Clinical and radiographic examinations reveal 28 teeth have erupted, but four third molars have not erupted. Which of the following conditions exists?
    A) Gemination
    B) Dilaceration
    C) Fusion
    D) Concrescence
    E) Dens in dente
    • A) Gemination- 2 crowns dev from 1 tooth bud
    • - share a single root and root canal--> wide, notched tooth

    • c) fusion- 2 tooth buds fuse; dentin is connected
    • d) concrescence- 2 completely separate teeth fused at cementum
  284. Steroid-induced osteoporosis mechanisms of action:
    • 1. directly inhibit osteoblasts
    • 2. directly enhance bone resorption
    • 3. inhibit GI Ca2+ absorption
    • 4. increase urine Ca2+ loss
    • 5. inhibit sex steroids
  285. Most common location for atherosclerotic aneurysm?
    abdominal aorta> coronary artery
  286. Initially, the developing heart is
    A) positioned anterior to the prochordal plate.
    B) between the prochordal plate and the notochord.
    C) positioned potsterior to the notochord.
    D) induced by the notochord.
    A
  287. Cells that will form the vertebrae have their origin in which of the following?
    A) Two pairs of somites
    B) Dermamyotome
    C) Intermediate mesodermal plate
    D) Notochord
    E) Neural arch
    A)

    Somite
    - present in developing embryo of vertebrates
    - somite= masses of mesoderm along 2 sides of neural tube
    - eventually becomes:
    1. vertebrae (sclerotome) and rib cartilage
    2. skeletal muscle (myotome)
    3. dermis (dermotome)
    - specify migration paths of neural crest cells and spinal nerve axons
    Gray20.png
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  288. A 5-year-old child with vesicular lesions limited to the palate and the posterior oropharyngeal mucosa has an oral temperature of 101°F (38°C). The most probable diagnosis is
    A) recurrent oral herpes.
    B) hand-foot-and-mouth disease.
    C) herpangina.
    D) chickenpox
    .E) herpetic gingivostomatitis.
    • C) herpangina- mostly in children
    • - painful ulcers/vesicles in posterior oral cavity and pharynx- tonsillar pillars, soft palate
    • - self-limited <1 week
    • - Coxsackie A virus

    • b) hand-foot-mouth
    • - usually children; fecal-oral
    • - anywhere in oral cavity; esp palate, tongue, buccal mucosa

    • a) recurrent oral herpes- most occur at vermillion of lips "herpes labialis", HARD PALATE
    • -recurrent is usually UNILATERAL
    • - HSV1 stays latent in trigeminal ganglion
  289. When the mandible performs a laterotrusive movement, the laterotrusive-side condyle moves primarily about which of the following axes?
    A) Transverse
    B) Horizontal
    C) Vertical
    D) Sagittal
    C) vertical

    - moves down and laterally
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  290. When viewed from the sagittal plane, the axial inclination of the anterior teeth
    A) remains vertical.
    B) inclines facially.
    C) inclines distally.
    D) inclines lingually.
    E) inclines mesially.
    B)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  291. Each of the following is attributable to hepatic failure EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A) Spider telangectasia
    B) Hypoalbuminemia
    C) Gynecomastia
    D) Tremor
    E) Mallory bodies
    • E) Mallory bodies
    • - aka alcoholic hyaline
    • - inclusion found in liver cells of people suffering from alcoholic liver disease
    • - pink, eosinophilic
    • - characteristic twisted rope appearance
    • - most common in ALCOHOLIC HEPATITIS and ALCOHOLIC CIRRHOSIS
  292. Between which of the following permanent teeth is the lingual embrasure smaller than the facial embrasure?

    A) Mandibular first premolar and mandibular second premolar
    B) Maxillary first premolar and maxillary second premolar
    C) Mandibular first molar and mandibular second molar
    D) Maxillary second molar and maxillary third molar
    A)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  293. Protein and RNA synthesis occur in each of the following phases of the cell cycle EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A) G2
    B) G1
    C) G0
    D) M
    E) S
    D)

    - mitosis involves division
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  294. A patient presents with symptoms of an acute abscess on the maxillary left lateral incisor. There are no clinical signs of decay or restoration. Radiographically, which of the following will most likely be shown as the cause of the abscess?
    A) Enamel pearls
    B) Concrescence
    C) Dens in dente
    D) Dilaceration
    E) Agenesis
    C) Dens in dente

    - outer surface of tooth folds inward
    - coronal and radicular forms
    - from infolding of dental papilla during tooth dev
    - most common in MAX LATERAL INCISORS
    - the malformation frequently results in early pulp NECROSIS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  295. In general, enzyme-deficiency diseases are inherited by which of the following modes?

    A) Autosomal dominant
    B) X-linked dominant
    C) Autosomal recessive
    D) Polygenic
    C)

    X-linked:
    1. Fabry's- lyososome storage disease
    - lack alpha-galactosidase; build up ceramides
    - FABR
    - failure of heart
    - angiokeratomas
    - brain problems
    - renal failure
    2. Hunter's- gargoylism, mental retardation, no corneal clouding (unlike hurler's)
    - x-linked recessive
    - Mucopolysaccharide storage disease
    - deficient in L-iduronate sulfatase
    - accumulation of heparan sulfate, dermatan sulfate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  296. The bulk of a tooth consists of

    A) crown.
    B) enamel.
    C) dentin.
    D) pulp.
    E) cementum.
    C) Dentin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  297. Nongonococcal urethritis is often caused by microorganisms of which of the following genera?
    A) Treponema
    B) Hemophilus
    C) Chlamydia
    D) Neisseria
    • C) Chlamydia Trachomatis (Chalmys= cloak)
    • - obligate intracellular organisms that cause mucosal infections; can't make own ATP
    • 1. Arthritis
    • 2. nongonococcal urethritis
    • 3. conjunctivitis
    • 4. PID

    • 1. Types A,B,C- chronic infection; blindness in Africa
    • 2. Type D,K-
    • - urethritis, PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia, neonatal conjunctivitis
    • 3. Types L1, L2, L3- lymphogranuloma venereum (acute lymphadenitis)

    Tx- oral erythromycin or tetracycline
  298. Which of the following is least likely to contribute to or affect stability of the dental arch form?
    A) Plane of occlusion
    B) Occlusal contact forces
    C) Periodontal health
    D) Interproximal contact form
    E) Forces exerted by the lips and tongue
    A) plane of occlusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  299. Each of the following grooves originates in the central pit of the maxillary second molar (four cusp type) EXCEPTION one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A) Distolingual
    B) Buccal
    C) Transverse grooves of the oblique ridge.
    D) Central
    • A) distolingual groove
    • - from distal pit
  300. Mucosa of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue develops primarily from
    A) foregut endoderm.
    B) hypobranchial eminence.
    C) Rathke's pouch.
    D) tuberculum impar.
    E) lateral lingual swellings.
    E) Lateral lingual swellings

    - 3rd week of embryological dev
    - lateral lingual swellings dev from mandibular arch; meet in the middle line--> form median sulcus of tongue post-embryologically

    - tuberculum impar- part anterior to foramen cecum

    - Rathke's pouch (oral ectoderm)- depression in roof of developing mouth--> gives rise to anterior pituitary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  301. Which of the following muscles participates in flexion at the gleno-humeral and the humero-ulnar joints?A) Brachialis
    B) Triceps brachii
    C) Deltoid
    D) Coracobrachialis
    E) Biceps brachii
    E) Biceps brachii

    • - rotates forearm and flexes elbow
    • 1. short head attaches to coracoid process of scapula
    • 2. long head attaches to supraglenoid tubercle of scapula in joint capsule
    • --> oth insert into radial tuberosity
  302. When viewed from the frontal plane and progressing posteriorly, the axial inclination of the crowns of maxillary posterior teeth
    A) remains vertical.
    B) inclines buccally.
    C) inclines mesially.
    D) inclines distally.
    E) inclines lingually.
    B) inclines buccally

    - maxillary teeth have a lingual/buccal axial inclination

    - mandibular teeth have a lingual inclination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  303. Submucosal glands are usually located in the
    A) fundus of stomach.
    B) colon.
    C) jejunum.
    D) appendix.
    E) duodenum.
    E) duodenum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  304. Which of the following terms refers to the presence of digested blood in the stool?
    A) Icterus
    B) Hemosiderosis
    C) Melena
    D) Hematoma
    E) Hemochromatosis
    • D) Melena
    • - black feces associated w/ GI hemorrhage
    • - oxidation of Fe when pass through ileum and colon
    • - most common cause is PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE (H. pylori)

    • a) icterus= jaundice
    • e) hemochromatosis- iron overload; deposit in tissue as hemosiderin (hemosiderosis)
    • - organs most commonly affected: LIVER, HEART, ENDOCRINE GLANDS
    • - cirrhosis
    • - diabetes- pancreatic islet failure
    • - arthritis- iron deposits in joints
    • - cardiomyopathy
    • -testicular failure
    • - tanning

    HEMOCHROMATOSIS IS "HEL"
  305. Soft and hard tissue necrosis characterizes which of the following fungal diseases?
    A) Cryptococcosis
    B) Candidiasis
    C) Mucormycosis
    D) Histoplasmosis
    E) Coccidioidomycosis
    C) Mucormycosis- Mucor and Rhizopus

    - opportunistic fungal infection
    - MOLD
    - nonseptate hyphae
    - disease mostly in KETOACIDOTIC DIABETIC AND LEUKEMIC pts
    - proliferate in walls of blood vessels and cause infarction and NECROSIS; frontal lobe abscesses



    *** Coccidoidomycosis (meningitis) and Histoplasmosis are SYSTEMIC MYCOSIS --> PNEUMONIA AND TB-like granulomas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  306. When in its normal position relative to the arch form, the crown of a mandibular first molar inclines
    A) distally and facially.
    B) mesially and facially.
    C) distally and lingually.
    D) mesially and lingually.
    D)

    roots incline distally
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  307. Which of the following statements about norepinephrine is correct?
    A) Is the preganglionic sympathetic neurotransmitter
    B) Causes cardiac acceleration
    C) Causes general vasodilation
    D) Causes vasodilation in vessels of the skin
    E) Has a negative inotropic effect on the heart
    B
  308. The characteristic of the aorta that is most responsible for the maintenance of diastolic blood pressure is its
    A) proximity to the heart.
    B) great peripheral resistance.
    C) elastic distensibility.
    D) active contraction
    E) wide lumen.
    C
  309. In the upper limb, which of the following represents a hallmark of lymphatic vessels?
    A) Follow the veins
    B) Contain fenestrations to allow passage of fluids into the interstitium
    C) Always travel in pairs
    D) Contain valves
    E) Only found on the anterior surface of the limb
    A) Follow the veins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  310. Which of the following characterizes both active transport and facilitated diffusion?
    A) Competitive inhibition
    B) Transport bidirectional
    C) Transport against a concentration gradient
    D) Hydrolysis of ATP
    A
  311. Red hepatization refers to which of the following?
    A) Congestion of the liver caused by chronic right sided heart failure
    B) Early stage of acute hepatitis
    C) Stage of lobar pneumonia
    D) Cirrhosis caused by hemochromatosis
    E) Late stage of acute hepatitis
    C) Stage of lobar pneumonia

    pneumonia= abnormal inflammation of lung

    - Lobar pneumonia as acute progression:
    1. congestion 1st 24 hrs
    2. red hepatisation or consolidation
    3. gray " "
    4. resolution/recovery

    *** Most common organism that causes lobar pneumonia= STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE "pneumococcus"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  312. Which groove of the mandibular first molar does the maxillary mesiolingual cusp pass through in a lateral excursive movement on the working side?
    A) Lingual
    B) Distobuccal
    C) Buccal
    D) Central
    A
  313. Which of the following types of blotting can be used to identify DNA restriction fragments?

    A) Northern
    B) Eastern
    C) Western
    D) Southern
    D) Southern

    SNoW DRoP

    Southern= DNA
    Northern= RNA
    Western= protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  314. Fibrocartilage normally occurs in
    A) epiphyseal plate.
    B) epiglottis.
    C) C-shaped rings in the wall of the trachea.
    D) intervertebral discs.
    E) external ear.
    D) Intervertebral discs

    - also in articular cartilage of condyle

    a) elastic cartilage
    b) hyaline
    d) elastic cartilage
    e) hyaline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  315. The neurons of the central nervous system that innervate muscles derived from branchial arches are found in which of the following nuclei?
    A) Nucleus ambiguus
    B) Nucleus of Edinger-Westphal
    C) Dorsal motor nucleus of X
    D) Superior salivatory nucleus
    E) Hypoglossal nucleus
    A) nucleus ambiguous

    a) dorsal motor nucleus of X
    - general visceral efferent GVE
    - secretomotor
    - efferent: parasympathetics to viscera of neck, thorax, abdominal cavities to L colic flexure

    c) nucleus of edinger-westphal= EYES
    - CN III oculomotor
    - GVE: misosis, convergence, accomodation

    d) superior salivatory nucleus
    - CN VII
    - GVE secretomotor: submandibular, sublingual glands (submandibular ganglion)
    - lacrimal glands and sinuses (PP ganglion)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  316. Multiple, lytic lesions of bone characterize each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
    A) Hyperparathyroidism
    B) Multiple myeloma
    C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
    D) Metastatic carcinoma
    E) Langerhans (eosinophilic) granulomatosis
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  317. The human immunodeficiency virus preferentially infects which of the following cells?
    A) Suppressor T
    B) NK
    C) Cytotoxic T
    D) Helper T

    Each of the following fluids is considered one that can transmit HIV EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A) Breast milk
    B) Saliva
    C) Amniotic fluid
    D) Semen
    E) Serum
    D) Helper T

    B) Saliva
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  318. If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5'ACG3', then which of the following is its corresponding codon on messenger-RNA?
    A) 5' TGC 3'
    B) 5' CGT 3'
    C) 5' UAG 3'
    D) 5' UGC 3'
    E) 5' CGU 3'
    • E)
    • ALWAYS WRITE IN A 5'--> 3' direction!
  319. Which main product of protein nitrogen metabolism is found in human urine?
    A) Uric acid
    B) Ammonia
    C) Creatinine
    D) Creatine
    E) Urea
    E) Urea

    UREA CYCLE in liver:
    - amino groups from AMMONIA and L-ASPARTATE--> urea
    - urea is found in blood; excreted as urine; a little as sweat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  320. Which of the following represents the location of the lingual height of contour on the crown of the mandibular second premolar?

    A) Same third as the lingual height of contour on the crown of the mandibular first premolar
    B) Middle third
    C) Occlusal third
    D) Same third as that tooth's buccal height of contour
    E) Same third as the lingual height of contour on the crown of the maxillary premolars
    C
  321. Which of the following cells are the most radiosensitive?
    A) Chondrocytes
    B) Lymphocytes
    C) Fibroblasts
    D) Neurons
    E) Epithelial cells
    B) lymphocytes

    - the least differentiated the cell, the more susceptible it is to radiation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  322. Each of the following statements about poliovirus infections is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A) Virus is predominantly shed from the body and transmitted in respiratory secretions.
    B) Some damaged neurons may be repaired, restoring lost functions.
    C) Paralysis is an uncommon outcome of infection.
    D) There are 3 types of poliovirus, making 3 infections possible.
    E) Most infections are subclinical.
    • A) "polio= gray--> spinal cord" + "itis"= inflammation
    • Picornavirus + strand RNA
    • - 3 diff types w/ diff capsid protein
    • - human enterovirus--> GI tract
    • - spread via fecal-oral route; highly contagious human-to-human contact

    • - 90% are asymptomatic
    • - if enter bloodstream--> can enter CNS= muscle weakness and flaccid paralysis
    • - Poliomyelitis "polio" or "infantile paralysis"
  323. In the temporomandibular joint, a very dense collection of organized elastic fibers is found in which of the following areas of the articular disc?
    A) Posterior-superior lamina of the bilaminar zone
    B) Posterior-inferior lamina of the bilaminar zone
    C) Posterior band
    D) Anterior band
    E) Intermediate band
    A
  324. Which of the following represents the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?

    A) Inhibits transcription
    B) Inhibits DNA replication
    C) Activates cAMP
    D) Causes cytolysis
    E) Inhibits translation
    D

    Corynebacterium diPHtheriae

    - causes PHARYNGITIS and PSEUDOMEMBRANE in throat

    MOA- inhibit elongation factor 2
  325. A stab wound creating a pneumothorax on the left side will usually result in collapse of which of the following?
    A) The left lung and pericardial sac
    B) Both lungs
    C) The left lung only
    D) The right lung only
    E) The rib cage on the left side
    C

    • Tension pneumothorax- life threatening condition that results from progressing of a simple pneumothorax--> forms one-way valve at the point of rupture so air is trapped and P is put on the lung (can't inflate completely)
    • - trachea moves to the unaffected side
    • - similar to cardiac tamponade--> differentiate the 2 w/ x-ray

    • Most common causes of pneumothoroax:
    • 1. spontaneously (males w/ marfan syndrome)
    • 2. stab wound
  326. Plasmid-mediated antibiotic resistance has been observed in diseases caused by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A) Haemophilus influenzae
    B) Streptococcus pyogenes
    C) Staphylococcus aureus
    D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    E) Bordetella pertussis
    B
  327. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with acute pancreatitis?
    A) Viral infection
    B) Physical trauma
    C) Chronic alcohol abuse
    D) Hypercalcemia
    E) Diabetes mellitus
    C

    - autodigestion of pancreas by pancreatic enzymes

    • -I GET SMASHeD (causes):
    • Idiopathic
    • IN ORDER OF MOST FREQUENT CAUSES:
    • 1. gallstones
    • 2. ethanol
    • 3. trauma
    • 4. steroids
    • 5. mumps
    • 6. autoimmune disease
    • 7. scorpion sting/snake bite
    • 8. hypercalcemia/hyperlipidemia/hypothermia
    • 9. Drugs (e.g. sulfa)

    • Clinical presentation:
    • - epigastric abdominal pain radiating to back
    • - anorexia
    • - nausea
    • *** ELEVATED LIPASE

    • Complications:
    • - can lead to DIC
    • - ARDS (pancreatic enzymes ac on lungs)
    • - diffuse fat necrosis (lipase)
    • - pseudocyst formation
    • - hemorrhage
    • - infectio
    • - hypocalcemia (Ca2_ collects in panreatic soap deposits


    • Chronic Pancreatitis- associated w/ ALCOHOLISM
    • Acute- #1 cause= GALLSTONES
  328. Ameloblasts will not differentiate from preameloblasts unless they
    A) contact neural crest mesoderm
    B) are touched by stratum intermedium
    C) contact dentin
    D) are touched by odontoblast processes
    E) contact stellate reticulum
    D) are touched by odontoblast processes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  329. Tonsils

    Describe the following:

    1. Pharyngeal Tonsils

    2. Palatine tonsils

    3. Lingual tonsils
    - non-encapsulated secondary immune system

    • 1. no lymph, sinuses, crypts
    • - surrounded by connective tissue and epithelium that forms deep infoldings (ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium)
    • - adenoids can block airflow

    • 2. crypts and lymphoid follicles, no sinuses
    • - covered partly by connective tissue and partly by epithelium (non-keratinized stratified squamous)

    • 3. lymphoid follicles, each with single crypt
    • - covered w// non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium; partially surrounded by connective tissue
  330. What is the source of NADPH?

    What biological processes is it needed for?
    HMP shunt

    • 1. FA and steroid synthesis
    • 2. glutathione reduction inside RBCs (protects from radicals and hydrogen peroxide)
  331. The secretion of which of the following endocrine glands is NOT essential to life?
    A) Adrenal medulla
    B) Pancreatic islets (Langerhans)
    C) Adrenal cortex
    D) Parathyroids
    E) Anterior pituitary
    A) adrenal medulla
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  332. What is a striated duct?
    • - (intralobular duct) gland duct that connects intercalated duct w/ the interlobular duct
    • - characterized by basal infoldings on basal surface of plasma membrane
    • - found in submandibular and parotid gland

    • - A LOT of mitochondria on basal surface
    • - Along with the intercalated ducts, they function to modify salivary fluid by secreting HCO3-and K+ and reabsorbing Na+ and Cl- using the Na-K pump and the Cl-HCO3 pump.
  333. The alternate loosening and tightening of a primary tooth that is about to be shed results from
    A) alternate resorption and apposition of cementum and bone.
    B) alternate softening and hardening of alveolar bone proper.
    C) labial movement of the developing permanent tooth.
    D) lack of a developing permanent successor.
    A
  334. A deficiency of vitamin A in a developing tooth most likely affects the
    A) dentin.
    B) cementum.
    C) enamel.
    D) pulp.
    C enamel
  335. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the formation of uric acid from purines?
    A) Xanthine oxidase
    B) Urease
    C) Aspartate transcarbamylase
    D) Carbamyl phosphate synthetase
    E) Uricase
    A
  336. Long bones of the skeleton increase in length because of

    A) interstitial growth in the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate
    .B) resorption of primary bone by osteoclasts.
    C) mitotic division of osteocytes.
    D) mitotic division of osteoblasts.
    E) appositional growth on the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate
    E
  337. Lactose, Maltose, glucose, galactose and fructose are these kinds of sugars because
    Reducing, they contain a free anomeric carbon
  338. GAG found in synovial fluid, vitreous humor, ECM of LCT
    hyaluronate, large polymers and shock absorbing
  339. GAG found in cartilage, bone and heart valves
    Chondroitin sulfate, most abundant GAG
  340. GAG found in basement membrane, components of cell surfaces
    heparin sulfate, contains higher acetylated glucosamine than heparin
  341. GAG found in intracellular granules of mast cells lining the arteries of teh lungs, liver and skin
    Heparin, also serves as anticoagulant, more sulfated than heparin sulfate
  342. GAG found in skin, blood vessels and heart valves
    dermantan sulfate
  343. GAG found in cornea, bone, cartilage aggragated with chondroitin sulfates
    keratin sulfate, most heterogenous GAG
  344. glucose + glucose
    maltose
  345. glucose + galactose
    lactose
  346. glucose + fructose
    sucrose
  347. This type of cell absorbs monosaccharides
    enterocytes
  348. large insoluble carbohydrate thats an important plant energy source comprised of amylose(unbranched) and amylopectin(branched)
    starch
  349. Highly branched polymer of glucose that is especially abundant in the liver
    glycogen, which can be cleaved by glucan transferase
  350. common organic earth compound that is not digestible by humans and is often referred to as dietary fiber
    cellulose
  351. This is a polysaccharide of glucose produced extracellularly bacteria and yeast.
    Dextrans; notable bacteria = strep mutans
  352. This is stored intracellularly as reserve nutrients, and increases the adhesion of bacteria to surfaces of teeth and promote the formation of dental plaque
    levans, formed from fructose and side product of dextran production
  353. structure that covers the from of the eye, bends light, and does not change shape
    cornea
  354. crystalline lens that focuses light, "fine-tunes" vision, this can become cloudy=cataract
    lens
  355. opening in the middle of the iris
    pupil
  356. functions as the shutter of the eye allowing light in and contains the color
    iris
  357. thin layer of nerve tissue that senses light, made of rods and cones
    retina
  358. densely packed nerve cells where focus of object or regard
    fovea
  359. Constriction of the pupil of the eye
    miosis
  360. prolonged abnormal dilation of the pupil induced by drug or disease
    mydriasis
  361. far objects are focuses at a point in front of the retina, cornea is steeper or eye is longer
    myopia, nearsightedness
  362. treatment for myopia
    concave lens
  363. light focuses behind the retina, flatter cornea or shorter eye
    hyperopia, farsightedness
  364. How do you treat farsightedness?
    convex lens
  365. curvature of lens is not uniform
    astigmatism; treat with cylindric lenses
  366. inability of the eye to focus sharply on nearby objects because of loss of elasticity of lents with advancing age
    presbyopia, treat with bifocals
  367. Abnormal type of hemoglobin, lysine is replaced with glutamic acid causing reduced plasticity of RBCs
    Hemoglobin C
  368. Abnormal hemoglobin with four beta chains, usually associated with a defect in three of four alpha chain genes resulting in alpha-thalassemia
    hemoglobin H
  369. Abnormal hemoglobin where valine has replaced glutamic acid in beta chain, sickle shape
    hemoglobin S
  370. abnormal hemoglobin with single AA substitution favors formation methemoglobin and is associated with methemoglobinemia
    Hemoglobin M
  371. Hormones activated by foodstuffs entering the duodenum
    CCK, Secretin, gastric inhibitory peptide(GIP)
  372. Reflex of the enteric nervous system?
    enterogastric reflex triggered by distention of the sm intestine, adn chemical and osmotic irritation of mucosa, inhibitory impulse
  373. most common lipid storage disease caused by a deficiency of enzyme glucocerebrosidase. Fatty material will collect and cause the spleen and liver to enlarge, liver malfunction, skeletal disorders, bone lesion that may cause pain, severe neurological comp, lymph node swelling, anemia, yellow spots in eyes. Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry
    Gaucher disease
  374. autosomal recessive disorder caused by accumulation of fat and cholesterol in liver, spleen, bone marrow, lungs, and brain. Ataxia, eye paralysis, brain degeneration, learning problems, spasticity, feeding and swallowing difficulties. Deficiency of sphingomyelinase and ashkenazi jewish ancestry.
    Niemann-Pick disease
  375. rare inherited disease, progressive destruction of brain and spinal cord nerve cells. Deficiency in beta-hexosaminidase A and accumulation of GM2 gangliosides. jewish ancestry, CNS degeneration, die by 5
    Tay-sachs disease
  376. autosomal recessive disorder caused by the deficiency of galactosylceramidase
    Krabbe disease
  377. alpha-galactosidase A deficiency disease, build up of fatty material in ANS, eyes, kidneys, and cardiovascular system
    Fabry disease
  378. Symptoms:
    Goiter, thickened nails that lift off the nail beds, myxedema, clubbing, exophthalmos
    Grave's disease- type of hyperthyroidsim

    • myxedema=lumpy reddish thick skin on front of shins and sometimes the top of feet
    • exopthalmos= bulging eyes
  379. autoimmune reaction to the adrenal cortex with weight loss, muscle weakness, fatigue, Low BP, darkening of skin.
    Addisons disease, adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and sometimes aldosterone
  380. Disorder failure to produce ADH or in rare cases for the kidney to respond to ADH. Increased urination and thirst and pale urine
    diabetes insipidus
  381. This molecule unwinds the helix
    helicases
  382. this molecule is responsible for unwinding supercoiled DNA to allow DNA polymerase access to replicate the genetic code
    topoisomerases
  383. this enzyme re-forms the supercoiled structure once the replication fork has passed
    DNA gyrase
  384. Pyrimidine bases
    • DNA- T and C
    • RNA- U and C

    CUT down the pyramids
  385. Purine bases
    A and G
  386. Glycolysis rate-limiting step?
    PFK, phosphofructokinase, catalyzes phosphate from ATP to fructose-6-phosphate
  387. Aldolytic reaction of glycolysis
    Aldolase converts fructose-1,6-biphosphate to two 3-carbon metabolites
  388. Where does glycolysis occur and what are the major points?
    Cytoplasm, absence of oxygen

    Needs 2 ATP to start

    End product is pyruvate, two molecules of NADH+ H+ are reduced, and four molecules of ATP via substrate phosphorylation so there is a Net gain of 2

    Pyruvate has two fates: aerobic respiration in mitochondria or fermentation(anaerobic respiration)
  389. Which amino acids are not transaminated?
    lysine, serine, threonine
  390. Arrange the three furcations of a maxillary first molar from closest to farthest from the cervical line.
    (a) Facial (b) Mesial (c) Distal
    CBA
  391. Which of the following teeth have sharp demarcations between pulp chambers and pulp canals?
    A) Maxillary lateral incisors B) Mandibular second premolars C) Mandibular canines D) Maxillary first premolars
    D because of the mesial root concavity
  392. The contact area, a self-protective feature of the dentition, functions to:
    (a) prevent food impaction;
    (b) distribute occlusal forces;
    (c) protect mucosal tissues;
    (d) form embrasures;
    (e) stabilize the dental arch.

    A) (a), (d) and (e)
    B) (c) and (d)
    C) (e) only
    D) (b) and
    (d)E) (a), (b) and (c)
    A
  393. Which of the following primary teeth has a distinctly prominent facial cervical ridge that makes it uniquely different from other teeth?

    A) Mandibular first molar
    B) Maxillary central incisor
    C) Maxillary second molar
    D) Mandibular canine
    E) Maxillary canine
    A. mandibular 1st molar
  394. Identify the permanent anterior tooth that most frequently exhibits a bifurcated root and identify the positions of the roots
    Mandibular canine: facial and lingual
  395. When an adult with normal occlusion moves his mandible from right lateral relation to centric occlusion, which cusp moves between facial cusps of the maxillary right second molar?

    A) Distal cusp of the mandibular first molar
    B) Distofacial cusp of the mandibular second molar
    C) Mesiofacial cusp of the mandibular third molar
    D) Mesiofacial cusp of the mandibular second molar
    E) Distofacial cusp of the mandibular first molar
    B
  396. In an adult, which of the following occur normally while swallowing?

    (a) Masseter muscles contract;
    (b) The suprahyoid group of muscles relaxes;
    (c) Teeth come into occlusal contact;
    (d) The tip of the tongue touches the roof of the mouth.
    A) (a), (c) and (d)B) (a), (b) a n d (c)C) (b), (c) and (d)D) All of the aboveE) (a), (b) and (d)

    • A)
    • - palatoglossus brings tongue up and back
    • - suprahyoid muscles contract to raise hyoid; pharynx pulls up (epliglottis closes airway)
    • - pharyngeal constrictors perform wavelike action (CN IX, X, XI)
    • - nasopharynx blocked off
  397. In an otherwise normal arrangement, which of the following teeth are most often in abnormal relation and contact with adjacent teeth in the same arch?
    maxillary lateral incisors

  398. Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrow on the sketch represents the path taken by the

    A) mesiolingual cusp of a first molar.
    B) facial cusp of a second premolar.
    C) lingual cusp of a second premolar.
    D) facial cusp of a first premolar
    E) lingual cusp of a first premolar.
    C
  399. Which of the following permanent teeth have mesial concavities that require special attention when removing calculus deposits?: (a) Maxillary central incisors; (b) Maxillary first premolars; (c) Maxillary first molars; (d) Mandibular second premolars
    B and C

    • - Maxillary 1st premolar has mesial concavity
    • - Maxillary 1st molars- only tooth with pronounced distal concavity at CEJ
  400. The facial masticatory mucosa (attached gingiva) is narrowest on which mandibular tooth?
    1st premolar

  401. The mandibular movement indicated isA) left lateral, working side.B) protrusive.C) left lateral, non-working side.D) right lateral, working side.E) right lateral, non-working side.
    left lateral non-working side
  402. In which of the following molars is the mesial fossa most distinctly separated from the remainder of the occlusal table by a transverse ridge?

    A) Maxillary secondB) Mandibular secondC) Mandibular firstD) Maxillary first
    C
  403. In a normal occlusion, mandibular central incisors contact maxillary incisors in which of the following movements?:

    (a) Protrusive; (b) Lateral (working); (c) Lateral (non-working); (d) Lateral protrusive
    A and D
  404. A lingual pit is most common on which of the following teeth?
    maxillary lateral incisor

    - also a distolingual groove

  405. A) Left lateral, working sideB) ProtrusiveC) Left lateral, non-working sideD) Right lateral, working sideE) Right lateral, non-working side
    A
  406. From a proximal view, which of the following permanent teeth tends to be positioned in the arch with its axis most nearly vertical?
    maxillary canine
  407. The lingual surface of the crown of a mandibular canine is smooth and: (a) relatively flat in the fossa area; (b) poorly developed in the marginal ridge area; (c) poorly developed in the cingulum area.

    A) (a) and (b)B) (c) only C) All of the aboveD) (a) onlyE) (b) onlyF) (b) and (c)
    C all of the above
  408. How soon after eruption of a permanent tooth is the apex usually fully developed?
    2-3 yrs
  409. The design of a restored occlusal surface is dependent upon the:
    (a) contour of the articular eminence;
    (b) position of the tooth in the arch;
    (c) amount of lateral shift in the rotating condyle;
    (d) amount of vertical overlap of anterior teeth.
    all of the above
  410. The oblique ridge on a permanent maxillary first molar is reduced in height in the center of the occlusal surface and is nearly level with the

    A) triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp.B) marginal ridge.C) None of the aboveD) cusp tip of the distofacial cusp.
    B marginal ridge

  411. A) mesiofacial cusp of a third molar.B) distofacial cusp of a second molar.C) distolingual cusp of a second molar.D) mesiofacial cusp of a second molar.E) mesiolingual cusp of a second molar.
    B
  412. During nonmasticatory swallowing, teeth are usually

    A) in contact in intercuspal position.
    B) protruded.
    C) None of the above. This is a nonexistent act.
    D) in a working arrangement.
    A
  413. The tooth most likely to exhibit a lingual groove that extends from the enamel onto the cemental area of the root is a permanent
    maxillary lateral incisor
  414. When viewed from the mesial or the distal, the overall facial outline from cusp tip to root apex of a mandibular canine is:
    (a) made up of two arcs;
    (b) made up of one continuous arc;
    (c) different from the outline of a maxillary canine;
    (d) very similar to the outline of a maxillary canine.

    A) (b) and (c)B) (a) and (c)C) (d) onlyD) (a) and (d)E) (b) and (d)
    A) B and C

    - maxillary canine has a more prominent labial ridge
  415. The ideal position and height of lingual cusps of a mandibular first molar accommodate which of the following?
    A) Non-working movement
    B) Centric relation
    C) Working movement
    D) Maximum intercuspation
    E) Protrusive position
    C working movement
  416. Which of the following is most commonly associated with development of gastrointestinal cancer?

    A) Pedunculated adenoma
    B) Meckel's diverticulum
    C) Duodenal peptic ulcer
    D) Diverticulosis
    E) Villous adenoma
    Villous adenoma- villous adenomas are VILLANOUS
  417. Removal of the capsule from an encapsulated bacterium is likely to result in.
    A) increased susceptibility to mutation.
    B) failure of the cell to gram stain.
    C) loss of viability.
    D) increased susceptibility to phagocytosis
    .E) decreased generation time.
    D
  418. The alum adjuvant employed in many vaccines acts biologically in tissues to

    A) prolong antigen release to immunocompetent cells in the region.
    B) Both (1) and (2) above
    C) Neither (1) nor (2) above
    D) serve as a local inflammatory stimulus.
    B

    -decreases the need for titers and a smaller amount of antigen; increases immune response
  419. The most reliable gaseous sterilizing agent available for dental instruments is
    A) carbon dioxide.B) hydrogen sulfide.C) ethylene oxide.D) formaldehyde.
    ethylene oxide
  420. What is a hemangioma?
    A benign self-involuting tumor of endothelial cells with unknown cause

    most common tumor in infancy

    "blood vessel tumor"
  421. Most common tumor of salivary glands?
    Where?

    Most common malignancy of salivary glands?
    • Pleomorphic (mixed) adenoma
    • -Parotid Gland> submandibular > Sublingual
    • - plasmacytoid cells are diagnostic

    • Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma
    • - mucous secreting cells and and epithelial cells
    • - accompanied by pain
    • - may show damage to CN VII
  422. Ludwig's angina


    • - life-threatening cellulitis infection of floor of mouth; usually in dental infection
    • - angina= severe pain
    • - usually from infection of mandibular molars
    • - mixed infection- usually Streptococci always present

    • 1) brawny/muscular induration that doesn't pit on pressure
    • 2) rapid onset
    • 3) Dysphagia, dyspnea, fever

    • - EMERGENCY when swelling blocks airway
    • - Tx- get rid of infection w/ antibiotics (penicillin)
  423. Amyloidosis

    1. Primary

    2. Secondary

    3. Hereditary
    proteinaceous material (amyloid) deposits and accumulates in tissues and organs

    • 1. unknown cause
    • - malignant plasma cells abnormally produce a lot of Ig's that accumulate and deposit onto tissues
    • - systemic: HEART, lungs, skin, tongue, thyroid gland, intestines, liver, kidney, blood vessels
    • - e.g. Multiple Myeloma (CRAB- hypercalcemia, renal disease, Anemia, Bone pain)

    • 2. reactive; complication of other diseases (TB, rheumatoid arthritis, etc)
    • - heart rarely involved

    3. rare; genetic mutations
  424. Down Syndrome
    - Trisomy 21 chromosomal abnormality

    • - mental retardation
    • - large protruding tongue
    • - small ears, large forehead, wide space eyes
    • - simean crease; short, broad hands

    • Complications
    • - congenital heart disease
    • - increased infections
    • - ALL (we ALL fall DOWN)
    • - increased Alzheimers
  425. Cri Du Chat Syndrome
    - Chromosome 5 short arm deletion

    • 1. severe mental retardation
    • 2. microcephaly
    • 3. catlike cry
  426. Edward's Syndrome
    - Trisomy 18

    • 1. mental retardation
    • 2. pinched face appearance
    • 3. micrognathia (Small jaw)
    • 4. small head w/ low set ears
    • 5. congenital heart disease

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