LE anatomy final tricks.txt

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LE anatomy final tricks.txt
2011-08-05 15:04:15
LE anatomy final tricks

LE anatomy final tricks
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  1. What side of the phalanges does the EDB link with EDL?
    Lateral side
  2. What side do dorsal interossei attach?
    Lateral (DAB)
  3. What side do plantar interossei attach?
    Medial (PAD)
  4. What digits are connected to plantar interossei?
  5. What muscle makes up majority of wing tendon on phalanges?
  6. Where does the central band of the extensor expansion insert?
    Base of middle phalanx
  7. Where do the lateral bands of the extensor expansion insert?
    Base of distal phalanx
  8. What joint does the extensor sling surround?
  9. At what joint does the FDB pass deep to the FDL?
  10. nerve of lateral compartment
  11. Nerve of Posterior compartment
    Tibial N
  12. Nerve of Anterior compartment
  13. Artery of lateral compartment
    brs. of AT and Fibular
  14. Artery of Posterior compartment
  15. Patellar reflex spinal nerve
  16. Achille reflex spinal nerve
  17. how many compartments found at medial malleolus?
    • **4 (Tom Dick AN Harry)
    • 1) TP
    • 2) FDL
    • 3) PTA, TN
    • 4) FHL
  18. How many dorsal interossei insert on 2nd phalanx?
    2 (medial and lateral)
  19. Medial plantar nerve innervation
    • Abd. Hallucis
    • FDB, FHB
    • 1st lumbrical
  20. LPN innervation
    All but Abd.H, EDB, EHB and 1st lumbrical
  21. What are the small tendons that hold larger tendons to bone and house small blood vessels?
  22. What Nerve innervates EDB & EHB?
    Deep fibular N
  23. T/F Saphenous nerve is posterior to medial malleolus?
    F, it is anterior
  24. What Nerves innervate nail beds?
    Proper plantar digital nerves
  25. In the foot, what are the two principal brs. of the SFN?
    Medial and intermediate dorsal cutaneous
  26. What N innervates the interspace b/t digits 1 and 2 (proper dorsal digital nerves 2 & 3)?
  27. What two brs. commonly make up the Sural N?
    • Medial sural cutaneous N (off of Tibial N)
    • Lateral sural cutaneous N (off of CFN)
  28. T/F Sural N passes posterior to lateral Malleolus?
  29. B/T what layers can you find the MPN?
    1 & 2
  30. B/T what layers can you find the LPN?
    3 & 4
  31. How many medial and lateral tarsal arteries branch off of dorsalis pedis?
    • Medial tarsal: 2 brs.
    • Lateral tarsal: 1 br
  32. How many dorsal metatarsal Arteries off of the arcuate artery?
  33. What is terminal arborization
    Digital anastomosis from plantar aspect of digits to dorsal
  34. What strata is found in thick but not thin skin?
    Strata Lucida
  35. What glands exist in thin and thick skin?
    • Thin: appocrine, eccrine, sebaceous, hair
    • Thick: eccrine
  36. What are the two substances that make up ECM?
    Fibers and Ground substance
  37. What makes up ECM fibers?
    Collagen and elastic fibers
  38. What makes up ECM ground substance?
    Proteoglycans and adhesive glycoproteins
  39. What is an aggrecan?
    Large collection of PGs
  40. T/F PGs are covalently linked to HA?
    F, non-covalently linked via proteins
  41. Role of Fibroblasts and ECM?
    They produce ECM
  42. 4 components of innate immune system?
    • Mast cells
    • Complement
    • Granulocytes
    • Macrophages
  43. 2 components of Acquire immunity?
    • T-cells (CMI)
    • B-cells (humoral) = plasma cells = antibodies
  44. 4 structures that are alymphatic?
    • Cornea
    • CNS
    • Cartilage
    • Epidermis
  45. Hyaline cartilage DiRCT of LE?
    • Joint capsules
    • Dermis (reticular layer)
    • Perichondrium
    • Periosteum
  46. What are the stem cells of the perichondrium?
  47. Type of growth of Perichondrium?
  48. Type of growth of Cartilage?
    Interstitial (isogenous groups with chondrocytes in lacunae)
  49. T/F fibrocartilage does not have perichondrium?
  50. Fibrocartilage structures?
    • Articular disks
    • labrum
    • menisci
    • IVD, symphysis type
  51. What is an Osteon?
    Basic functional unit of bone
  52. What are canaliculi?
    Junctions b/t lacunae in bone for communication
  53. What type of collagen is bone ECM?
    Type I
  54. What is osteogenesis imperfecta?
    Inadequate and dysfunctional Type I collagen so bone does not form and cannot remodel
  55. What diseases are caused by Vit D deficiency in adults and children?
    • Adults: OM
    • Children: rickets
  56. Where do osteoclasts arise?
    Bone marrow
  57. Effects of PTH and Calcitonin on Ostoclast activity?
    • PTH: increase bone resorption
    • Calcitonin: decrease bone resorption
  58. Where do PTH and Calcitonin arise?
    • PTH : Parathyroid glands
    • Calcitonin: Parafollicular cells
  59. Name the three requirements for successful fracture healing?
    • 1) Approximation
    • 2) Limited movement
    • 3) Intact periosteum and endosteum (for stem cell osteoblasts)
  60. Which requires more Oxygen, fibroblasts or osteoblasts?
    • Osteoblasts
    • ** Fibroblasts require the least
  61. What cells first arrive on scene after a fracture? What do they form?
    Fibrocartilage to form hyaline cartilage
  62. 4 stem cells of ossification?
    • Periosteum
    • Endosteum
    • Mesenchyme
    • Perichondrium
  63. What cells participate in intramembranouse ossification?
    Mesenchyme cells
  64. At what embryonic week does vasculature start to arise in bone ossification?
    wk 6
  65. At what embryonic week does the primary center of ossification begin?
    wk 8
  66. comparison of growth b/t hyaline cartilage and bone?
    • hyaline: interstitial (mitotic chondroblasts becoming chondrocytes and resting in isogenous groups)
    • Bone: appositional
  67. In what day does LE embryonic development start?
    day 28
  68. What spinal levels contribute to LE embryo development?
  69. What somites participate in LE muscle growth?
    Paraxial mesoderm
  70. At what embryo week deos LE rotation start?
    wk 6 (ends at wk 8)
  71. What does the LE look like @ wk 7?
    Apoptosis of digits starts and rotation continues
  72. What is the embry origin of the nucleus propulsus?
  73. Name the three layers of paraxial mesoderm?
    • Myotome:
    • Dermatome:
    • Sclerotome:
  74. When does endochondral ossification begin?
    8-12 weeks
  75. What are the two cell types in Synovial fluid and what do they produce?
    • Type A: macrophage
    • Type B: synovial fluid producers
  76. Where does the Conus medullaris end?
    L1-L2 IVD space
  77. At what vertebral level do you perform a lumbar puncture?
    L4, high point iliac crest
  78. What type of joint is the sup/inf articular processes of vertebral bodies?
    Diarthrosis (synovial)
  79. What is affected by a lumbar stenosis?
    • 4 IV foramen causing difficulty with lumbar puncture
    • ** might have to use sacral canal/hiatus for puncture
  80. What is the general rule for nerve compression?
    Nerve compression will cause pain in area of nerve that lies underneath (L4 will cause L5 pain)
  81. At what vertebral level can you find the high point of iliac crest and PSIS?
    • Iliac crest: L4
    • PSIS: S2
  82. What are the two components of the sacroiliac joint?
    • Ant: synovial (hyaline)
    • Post: fibrous
  83. What is the X-ray method for viewing the lesser trochanter?
  84. What is the strongest capsular ligament around the hip?
    1) iliofemoral
    2) pubofemoral
    3) Ischiofemoral
  85. What three structures protect from lateral disloaction of the patella?
    • high lateral condyle
    • vastus medialis
    • patellar ligament
  86. What does the MCL attach to?
    Medial meniscus
  87. What does the LCL attach to?
  88. What does Popliteus attach to?
    Lateral meniscus
  89. What muscles areas are formed from Epimere & Hypomere?
    • Epimere: true back muscles
    • Hypomere: limb muscles
  90. T/F muscles are formed from more than one myotome and are innervated by only one primary ramus?
    F, they are formed from multiple myotomes but the innervation is multiple as well
  91. What is another name for dorsal mm mass and what are their functions?
    • Postaxial
    • function: extend and abduct
  92. What is another name for ventral mm mass and what are their functions?
    • Preaxial
    • function: flex and adduct
  93. What is the LE border b/t preaxial and postaxial?
    • Preaxial:Tibia and hallucis
    • Postaxial: fibular and 5th digit
  94. Embryonic origin for Schwann cells and PRG cells?
    Neural crest
  95. embryonically, what do the anterior and posterior branches of the anterior primary rami innervate?
    • Anterior = preaxial, ventral
    • Posterior = postaxial, dorsal
  96. Lumbar & Sacral plexus are Anterior & Posterior Divisions of what anterior primary rami?
  97. What are the 5 Anterior nerves of the LE?
    • Obturator
    • Tibial
    • Posterior femoral cutaneous
    • medial plantar
    • lateral plantar
  98. What are the 7 Posterior nerves of the LE?
    • Superior gluteal
    • Inferior gluteal
    • Femoral nerve
    • Lateral femoral cutaneous
    • Common fibular
    • Superficial fibular
    • Deep fibular
  99. What is the most powerful hip flexor and where does it insert?
    Iliopsoas, inserts on lesser trochanter of femur
  100. Innervation of gluteus maximus and medius/minimus?
    • Maximus= inf gluteal
    • Medius/minimus = sup gluteal
  101. Obturator internus exits via lesser sciatic foramen, what two ligaments form the foramen?
    Sacrospinous and Sacrotuberous ligaments
  102. IT band innervation?
    Sup gluteal N
  103. What two mm form floor of femoral triangle?
    Iliopsoas and Pectineus
  104. 4 hamstring characteristics
    • Tibial nerve innnervation
    • Origin @ ischial tuberosity
    • flex knee
    • extend hip
  105. At what level does the meningeal sac end?
  106. How many peripheral nerves can one anterior primary rami supply?
  107. What nerve can be impinged at PSIS and inguinal ligament?
    Lateral femoral cutaneous
  108. Superficial and Deep inguinal lymph nodes drain to what nodes?
    External iliac
  109. Vertebral level of IVC bifurcation?
  110. Vertebral level of Aortic bifurcation?
  111. Diff b/t direct and indirect inguinal hernia?
    • direct: pierces inguinal canal
    • indirect: passes within inguinal canal
  112. What four Arteries make up the cruciate anastomoses of the femoral head/neck?
    • Descending br. of inferior gluteal A
    • Medial circumflex A
    • Lateral circumflex A
    • 1st perforating A off of Deep femoral A