STUDY HM3

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  1. Colors of health record jackets from 0-9
    0-Orange 6-White1-Green 7-Almond2-Yellow 8-Pink3-Gray 9-Red4-Tan5-Blue
  2. How much does a Unit One bag weigh?
    9 POUNDS
  3. Dressings should be large enough to cover the entire area of the wound and to extend at least ____ in every direction beyond the edges.
    1 INCH
  4. What types of bandages are made of gauze or muslin and are used over a sterile dressing to secure the dressing in place?
    STANDARD
  5. In bandaging and extremity, what parts of the body do you leave exposed to observe the circulation?
    FINGERS OR TOES
  6. What type of bandage do you use for the elbow?
    A SPICA OR FIGURE EIGHT
  7. What type of bandage do you use to cover wounds of the forearms and lower extremities?
    SPIRAL REVERSE
  8. What type of bandage is good for bandaging any protruding part of the body?
    FOUR TAILED
  9. How long does a Oxygen Breathing Apparatus last for?
    20 - 45 MINUTES
  10. TO WHAT DEVCE YOU SHOULD NEVER CONNECT THE HOSE MASK TO?
    OXYGEN BOTTLE
  11. HOW LONG IS A LIFELINE?
    50 FT LONG ( STEEL WIRE )
  12. WHAT DETECTS OXYGEN DEFICIENCY?
    OXYGEN INDICATOR
  13. HOW MANY PHASES OF RESCUE OPERATIONS ARE THERE?
    4
  14. What phase of rescue operations is where extrication is extremely difficult and time consuming?
    PHASE THREE
  15. How many stages of extrication are there?
    FIVE
  16. What stage of extrication is preparing the victim for removal?
    FOURTH
  17. When rescuing a victim from a fire, what part of the body do you leave uncovered?
    HEAD
  18. When trying to break an electrical contact, always stand on what type of items?
    DRY BOARD, DRY NEWSPAPERS, OR DRY CLOTHING
  19. When using a stretcher, how do you move the victim?
    FEET FIRST
  20. What litter is most commonly used for transporting sick or injured persons
    STOKES
  21. How many blankets should be used to pad a stokes stretcher?
    THREE
  22. What type of stretcher is a collapsible stretcher made of canvas?
    ARMY LITTER
  23. What type of stretcher is used in confined spaces and vertical extrication?
    MILLER BOARD
  24. How many sizes does the spine board come in and what are they?
    TWO: SHORT(18”X 32”) AND LONG (18”X 72”)
  25. What materials do they use to make the spine board?
    FIBERGLASS OR EXTERIOR PLYWOOD
  26. How long must persciptions be kept on file?
    2 years
  27. How is a calculation of a pediatric dose made using clarks rule?
    Weight in pounds____________ X AdultDose150
  28. How is a calculaion of a pediatric doses made using youngs rule?
    Age in years------------------ X NormalAge plus 12 Adult Dose
  29. Healing time for a first degree burn
    one week
  30. How should the umilical cord be clamped?
    use two clamps 2 inches apart with the first clamp 6-8inches from the navel
  31. What type of knot is used to secure if used to secure the ends of a triangular bandage for the head?
    square knot
  32. bruises behind the ear are strong indicators of what?
    skull fracture, cervical injury (battle signs)
  33. Most common roach indoors.
    German cockroach
  34. Dengue or malaria is contracted from what fly
    TSE TSE fly or oriental fly
  35. What is rubella?
    German measles
  36. what is giardiasis?
    a parisitic small intestine
  37. signs of circulatory shock, high fever, loss of appetite, vomiting, abdominal pain and headache?
    Dengue hemorragic fever
  38. Which form is the consultaion sheet?
    513
  39. True or false: Fleet Hospitals are used in operations that are less than 60 days in duration
    True
  40. Personnel in these dental classifications go to the head of the line for the treatment prior to deployment
    Class 3 and 4
  41. What is the process called that is used to determine the correct subject group under which documents should be filed?
    classifying
  42. The 5000 series correspondance relates to?
    General administration and management
  43. which type of directive regulates policy?
    Permanent
  44. Normal urine output(Volume) for adults?
    800-2000 ml
  45. Sutures applied to the face shall last how many days?
    4days
  46. What is the drug of choice for a patien that is suffering from grand mal epilespy?
    Phenton sodium( Dilantin)
  47. What screening test dectects choloroquine in urine?
    Wilson edison test
  48. What type of stretcher is used to remove patients from machinery spaces?
    Neil Robertson
  49. What is the preferred method for visual acuity?
    Snellen test
  50. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is resistant to what medication?
    Penicillan
  51. Flash blindness from a nuclear explosion persists for how long?
    20-30 minutes
  52. What is the treatment for blister agents?
    sodium bicarbonate dressings
  53. THE FOUR QUARENTANABLE DISEASES
    Plague,Yellow fever, Smallpox,Cholera
  54. People who are allergic to eggs and foul shoul not be given the following immunizations?
    Thyphus,Influenza,Measles,Yellow fever
  55. What cranial nerve is responsible for eye movement,size of pupil, and eye focus?
    Oculomotor
  56. What is the most commonfactor that influences the amountof drug to be given?
    Age
  57. What form provides achronological history of the shipsand stations to which a member hasbeen assigned for duty andtreatment, and an abstract ofmedical history for each admissionto the sick list?
    NAVMED 6150/4
  58. Due to their large size,what type of radiation particlesare rapidly stopped or absorbed bya few inches of air, a sheet ofpaper, or the superficial layersof skin?
    Alpha
  59. The decontamination supplycabinets will be kept locked, andthe keys will be in the custody ofwhom?
    Damage Control Assistant
  60. What is the following burn percentages for these body parts?Head (front or back) Arms(front or back )Chest Genital areaAbdominal Legs (front or back)Back
    Head 4.5 Arms 4.5Chest 9 Nutsack 1 Abdominal 9 Legs 9Back 9
  61. What type of CBR agent leavessymptoms of lacrimation, eye pain,photophobia, cough, respiratoryirritation, abdominal pain,nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skinerythema and itching and headache?
    Vesicants
  62. What type of diet is usedin the treatment ofhypoglycemia?
    Low-carb, high-protein
  63. An infection is considerednosocomial if it first becomesapparent within how many hoursor more after admission?
    72 hours.
  64. An abnormal white bloodcell count of 10,000 to30,000/mm3 is representative ofwhat infection?
    Appendicitis
  65. The blood of the averageman contains approximately howmany red blood cells per cubicmillimeter?
    5.0 million
  66. After the growth year, anoverproduction of what hormonecauses acromegaly?
    Somatotropin
  67. Which of the following isNOT part of the alimentarycanal?
    Trachea
  68. An important step in thecontrol of communicable diseaseis the expeditious preparationand submission of what?
    Medical Event Report
  69. In a health record, whatform provides a chronologicalhistory of the ships andstations to which a member hasbeen assigned for duty andtreatment?
    NAVMED 6150/4
  70. The last nine digits of the National Stock Number ( NSN ) are known as the ?
    National Item Identification Number ( NIIN)
  71. Who is responsible for procuring, receiving, inspecting & storing food stuff?
    Supply officer
  72. The symptoms of watering of the eyes, tightness in the chest, and later symptoms of rapid shallow breathing, painful cough, frothy sputum, cyanosis, clammy skin, rapid feeble pulse, and low blood pressure are symptoms of exposure to?
    Choking agent
  73. What mosquito is responsible for transmitting Yellow Fever?
    Aedes egypti
  74. Drooping eyelids, blurred and trouble vision, sore throat, dry mouth, vomiting, diarrhea, and symmetrical paralysis are symptoms of which disease?
    C. Botulism
  75. Of the following foods used in conjunction with rat poison, which is preferred by the Black Roof Rat?
    Fruits
  76. The normal hematocrit value for adult female is within what range of percentages?
    40% to 48%
  77. What chemical is considered to be best urine preservation
    Toluene
  78. Leuckocytosis can be caused by which of the following infections?
    Meningitis
  79. What are diseases that may be transmitted from a carrier to a susceptible host?
    COMMUNICABLE
  80. What is any animal capable of transmitting pathogens?
    vector
  81. What is also known as a dry socket?
    ALVEOLAR OSTEITIS
  82. What is an inflammation of the oral mucosa?
    STOMATITIS
  83. What is a severe inflammation of the tooth pulp?
    ACUTE PULPITIS
  84. What forms an integral part of the basic cell structure and circulates in body fluids?
    Minerals
  85. What type of vitamin helps maintain normal liver functions?
    k
  86. What is the Instruction number for the Management of Infectious Waste?
    BUMEDINST 6280.1A
  87. What is the adult dose for syrup of Ipecac?
    15-30 cc15cc for children
  88. How long does it take for a patient to vomit after taking syrup of Ipecac?
    30 minutes
  89. What absorbs many substances in the gut and prevents absorption into the body?
    ACTIVATED CHARCOAL
  90. How long does it take for bacterial and viral food poisoning to appear?
    8 hours.
  91. What is a common human enzyme deficiency?
    GLUCOSE 6-PHOSPHATE DEHYDROGENASE
  92. What venomous family of snake does sea snakes fall under?
    HYDROPHIDAE
  93. What family of venomous snakes does the coral snake fall under?
    ELIPIDAE
  94. How long does it take for pain and swelling in the bite area to develop?
    30 MINUTES TO SEVERAL HOURS
  95. How many liters of vinegar you should pour on a jellyfish sting?
    2
  96. How can a chemical agent on the skin be removed?
    M291
  97. What type of chemical agent has odor of garlic or horseradish?
    nerve
  98. What type of chemical agent has odor of new mown hay?
    choking
  99. What type of agent has a pepperlike odor?
    irritant
  100. What type of agent has a faint bitter almond odor?
    blood
  101. What is the specific therapy for nerve agent casualties?
    atropine
  102. What type of rays produce their effects mainly by knocking orbital electrons out of their path?
    Gamma
  103. What types of vitamins are fat-soluble?
    ADEK
  104. How many separate vitamins does Vitamin B complex have?
    12
  105. How many steps are there in positioning the patient?
    4
  106. What two maneuvers can be used to open an obstructed airway?
    HEAD TILT CHIN LIFT AND JAW THRUST
  107. What maneuver is recommended for relieving foreign body airway obstruction?
    HEIMLICH
  108. What is the proper method to remove bee stingers?
    Scrape with a dull knife.
  109. If the patient still does not respond continue mouth to mouth ventilations at the rate of ____ to _____ ventilations per minute or one breath every ______ seconds.
    10 to 12, 5
  110. What type of thermal burn involves the epidermal layer being irritated, reddened, and tingling.
    First degree burn
  111. Within how many minutes should CPR commence on a patient that went into cardiac arrest?
    FOUR
  112. Once the airway has been opened during one rescuer CPR where do you check for pulse?
    CAROTID
  113. During CPR, How many inches should the sternum be depressed?
    APPROXIMATELY 1 1/2 TO 2 INCHES
  114. What is the ratio for compressions to ventilations during one rescuer CPR?
    15 TO 2
  115. compressions per minute during Two-Rescuer CPR?
    80 to 100
  116. CPR for children between what ages is similar to that for adults?
    1 TO 8 YEARS OLD
  117. Where are chest compressions performed during CPR for children?
    LOWER HALF OF THE STERNUM
  118. During CPR on an infant, where do you check for a pulse?
    BRACHIAL ARTERY
  119. What technique is commonly used to anesthetize maxillary teeth?
    Infiltration
  120. How many Fleet Hospitals are there in the Navy?
    10
  121. What size intercatheter would use to perform a cricothyroidotomy?
    12 TO 16 GAUGE
  122. How many pressure points are on each side of the body?
    11
  123. What most often results either from forgetting to take your insulin or from taking to little to insulin?
    DIABETIC KETOACIDOSIS
  124. What is the most effective method of warming a victim with hypothermia?
    IMMERSION IN A TUB OF WATER (100 TO 105 OR 38 TO 41 C) WATER
  125. Death results as the core temperature of the body approaches ______.
    80 degrees
  126. What degree of burn does a patient have if the tissue color will range from white to black?
    THIRD DEGREE
  127. How long do irrigate alkali burns to the eyes?
    20 MINUTES
  128. What is the body temperature for a patient that has heat stroke?
    105 F OR 41 C OR HIGHER
  129. What is one of the easiest ways to carry a unconscious person?
    FIREMAN’S CARRY
  130. What type of bandage do you use for the ear?
    BARTON
  131. When using a lifeline to raise an unconscious person from an compartment, the lifeline should be attached to victim in what manner?
    AROUND THE CHEST AND UNDER THE ARMS
  132. How many minutes does it take for irreversible brain damage to occur?
    4 TO 6 MINUTES
  133. What form provides a current concise and a comprehensive record of a military members medical history?
    SF 600
  134. What is the process of quickly assessing patients in a multiple casualty incident?
    TRIAGE
  135. What are the two types of triage?
    TACTICAL AND NONTACTICAL
  136. What are some signs of partial airway obstruction?
    UNUSUAL BREATH SOUNDS, CYANOSIS OR CHANGES IN BREATHING PATTERNS
  137. Low blood pressure exists is considered to exist when your pressure falls below _______ millimeters of mercury (mm HG)
    90
  138. What type of blood pressure is created in the arteries when the blood pumps blood out in circulation?
    SYSTOLIC
  139. What type of blood pressure is the remaining arteries were relaxed between beats?
    DIASTOLIC
  140. How is respiration rates classified?
    NORMAL, DEEP OR SHALLOW
  141. How many beats per minute is considered a rapid respiration rate?
    28
  142. What is the normal respiration rate for an adult?
    12-20
  143. Where is the most common site to determine a patients pulse?
    RADIAL
  144. What is the normal pulse rate for an adult?
    60 TO 80 BEATS PER MINUTE
  145. What is the possible cause of abnormality if your pupil characteristics are unequal?
    STROKE AND HEAD INJURY
  146. How many steps does the head to toe survey have?
    26
  147. What type of examination is a comprehensive hands-on survey of the patient’s body
    OBJECTIVE
  148. Usually the trauma assessment is about ______ percent patient interview and _______ percent physical exam?
    20/80
  149. What do the ABCDEs of emergency care stand for?
    AIRWAY, BREATHING, CIRCULATION, DISABILITY, AND EXPOSE
  150. When arriving at the scene, what is the first thing you do?
    make sure scene is safe
  151. What survey is a complete detailed assessment consisting of a subjective interview and an objective examination?
    secondary
  152. When sorting for treatment, in what priority do you place a patient with eye injuries?
    PRIORITY II
  153. In what war were the techniques for MEDEVAC so effective?
    VIETNAM
  154. When sorting for treatment, in what priority do you place a patient with a simple fracture?
    PRIORITY III
  155. When sorting for treatment, in what class do you place a patient whose definitive treatment can be delayed without jeopardy to life?
    CLASS III
  156. When sorting for treatment, in what class do you place a patient with immediate life sustaining injuries?
    CLASS II

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Author:
 MIKE2009
ID:
 96246
Filename:
 STUDY HM3
Updated:
2011-08-05 17:56:09
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HM3
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HM3 STUDY
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