CRJ-200 Systems

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  1. How long is the aircraft?
    87' 1"
  2. How wide is the aircraft from wingtip to wingtip?
    69' 8 "
  3. How tall is the CRJ from the ground to the top of the horizontal stabilizer?
    20' 8"
  4. How wide is the track between the main wheels?
    10' 4"
  5. How large is the APU exhaust danger area?
  6. How large is the radar hazard area?
  7. How large is the intake danger area at idle thrust?
  8. How large is the intake danger area at max thrust?
  9. How large is the exhaust danger area at idle thrust?
    Approximately 70'.
  10. How large is the exhaust danger area at max thrust?
    Approximately 170'.
  11. How far is it from the ground to the top of the winglet?
    9' 6"
  12. How many external emergency lights are there?
    8 ( Four per side )
  13. How much pavement is required to make a 180 degree turn?
  14. How many degrees will the nose wheel turn when using the tiller?
    70 degrees.
  15. How many degrees will the nose wheel turn using the rudder pedals?
    5 degrees.
  16. What is the purpose of the winglets?
    The winglets increase aspect ratio, decrease wingtip vorticies, and improve fuel efficiency and performance.
  17. How are the emergency lights powered?
    4 rechargeable batteries that last 15 minutes.
  18. How long is the escape rope?
  19. How many doors does the CRJ 200 have, and where are they located?
    8 - avionics bay, main cabin, galley service, crew escape hatch, RT & LT overwing emergency, aft equipment bay, & the cargo bay.
  20. Which doors may be used in an evacuation?
    The main cabin door, galley service door, escape hatch, & both overawing exits.
  21. What is the weight restriction on the main cabin door?
    1000 lbs, or 4 passengers.
  22. Which doors are monitored by PSEU's?
    All doors are monitored except for the escape hatch and the aft equipment bay.
  23. What secures the main cabin door?
    Pre- Phase four doors have three locking pins, and two cam latches. Phase four doors have 4 pins two per side and two cam locks.
  24. Which doors are plug type doors?
    The galley service door, escape hatch, cargo door, avionics bay door, & both overawing exits.
  25. How can you verify that the main cabin door is closed?
    The green alignment marks on the locking pins and cam locks. Pre-phase four doors will also indicate locked when the handle is stowed.
  26. Can the escape hatch be opened from the outside?
  27. Can the overawing exits be interchanged?
  28. Can the overawing exits be opened from the outside?
  29. Can the aft equipment bay be opened if the aircraft is pressurized ?
    Yes, the aft equipment bay is not a pressurized compartment.
  30. How can you verify that the galley service door is closed?
    There is a green indicator below the inside handle.
  31. Can any of the doors be controlled from the flight deck?
    The escape hatch can be manually controlled from the flight deck. All others may be monitored only on EICAS.
  32. What external lights make the aircraft visible to other aircraft ?
    Nav lights, anti-collision ( strobes ), rotating beacons, and logo lights.
  33. What lights must be on for the flight data recorder to operate?
    The strobes, or the beacon.
  34. Where are the strobe lights located?
    One on each wing tip and one on the tail.
  35. How many landing lights are there?
    4 ( Two in the nose, and one on each wing ).
  36. How many taxi / recog lights are there?
    2 ( One in each wing root ).
  37. How are the sidewall and ceiling lights in the cabin controlled?
    They are controlled by switches on the flight attendant's panel.
  38. What compartments have service lights?
    The avionics bay, aft equipment bay, cargo bay, and nose gear wheel well.
  39. How do you control the floodlight at the forward entrance?
    With the dome switch on the flight attendants panel.
  40. What does the " Auto " position of the NO SMKG and SEAT BELTS switch do?
    In the auto position, with the flaps extended, the seat belt sign will illuminate. When the gear is extended both lights illuminate. When the cabin altitude reaches 1000' both signs illuminate.
  41. What system activates the NO SMKG and SEAT BELTS sign when cabin altitude reaches 10000'?
  42. With the emergency switch in "Auto", when will the emergency lights come on?
    When essential DC or essential AC power is lost.
  43. What will happen if the emergency lights are in the " Off" position, with power on the aircraft?
    You will get an EMER LTS OFF caution message accompanied by a single chime.
  44. What do the emergency lights consist of?
    The exit signs, ceiling emergency floodlights, floor level emergency floodlights, floor track emergency lights or illumine cent strips, floor level exit signs, and exterior emergency lights.
  45. What is the max pressure of the flight deck oxygen bottle ?
    1850 psi
  46. Where is the flight deck oxygen bottle located ?
    Under the floor on the right side of the flight deck
  47. Where can you read the flight deck oxygen pressure ?
    On EICAS, and also on the gauge in the oxygen services panel
  48. What is the source of supplemental oxygen for the flight crew?
    A pressurized oxygen cylinder provides emergency oxygen to the three masks on the flight deck.
  49. What are the three modes of the oxygen masks?
    Normal, 100%, and Emergency.
  50. When do you get the " OXY LO PRESS " caution message?
    When the oxygen pressure is at or below 1410 psi.
  51. A white flag in view on the oxygen mask indicates what?
    The oxygen shutoff valve is open.
  52. How can you confirm oxygen flow to the mask?
    A yellow cross on the oxygen blinker.
  53. When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
    When CPAM detects a cabin altitude of 14,000 ' or greater.
  54. At what altitude will the crew oxygen masks automatically provide 100% oxygen?
    30,000 '.
  55. How long does the passenger oxygen last?
    13 minutes.
  56. How many medical oxygen bottles are on board?
    2 ( Each bottle is charged to 1500-1800 psi ).
  57. Where is the oxygen services panel?
    The right side of the forward fuselage.
  58. How can you identify an oxygen overpressure?
    The green oxygen blow out plug on the fuselage will be missing. EICAS pressure will read 0 psi, and you will have an " OXY LO PRESS" caution message.
  59. How can you manually deploy the passenger oxygen masks?
    By pressing the PASS OXY switch light.
  60. How do you purge the oxygen mask of smoke?
    By pressing the emergency control knob on the mask.
  61. What controls the automatic dropping of the passenger masks?
    CPAM ( cabin pressure acquisition module ).
  62. What provides oxygen to the passenger masks?
    Chemical oxygen generators that provide 13 minutes of oxygen once the rubber tubing on the mask has been pulled.
  63. Why is it dangerous to touch an oxygen generator when in use?
    They become very hot.
  64. How many potable water tanks are on the aircraft?
    2 ( One forward and one aft ).
  65. Where are the controls for the potable water systems?
    In the galley.
  66. Is potable water heated?
    Yes. Both tanks have heaters. The drain masts, drain lines and hoses to the galley are also heated.
  67. Where are the fill ports for the water systems?
    On the right side of the fuselage. One forward, and one aft.
  68. Where is the access panel for the waste system located?
    On the right rear of the fuselage.
  69. How many volts are required to start the APU?
  70. What are the APU start cycle limits using ground power?
    2 X 15 seconds ON - 20 minutes OFF. 2 X 15 seconds ON - 40 minutes OFF.
  71. What are the APU start cycle limits using the APU battery?
    2 X 30 seconds ON - 20 minutes OFF. 2 X 30 seconds ON - 40 minutes OFF
  72. When does the white APU starter message go out?
    At 50 % rpm.
  73. At what speed will the AVAIL light illuminate?
    At 99 % rpm.
  74. What conditions will cause the APU to automatically shut down in flight?
    Fire, Over speed, RPM signal loss, Loss of DC power, ECU loss, or a slow start ( less than 50% for 60 seconds ).
  75. What conditions will cause the APU to automatically shut down on the ground?
    Fire, Over speed, RPM signal loss, Loss of DC power, ECU loss, Slow start, Over temp, Over current, Low oil pressure, High oil temp,EGT signal loss, or loss of door signal.
  76. What four things happen when you press the APU power fuel switch?
    The APU SOV opens, the APU Door opens, APU gauges appear, and the APU in BITE status message appears.
  77. Starting the APU requires which battery?
    Both ( The APU ECU gets power from main battery, and APU starter gets power from APU battery ).
  78. What is the maximum time you can leave an aircraft with the APU running?
    5 minutes.
  79. What does the APU GEN OFF message indicate?
    The APU has been at 100 % rpm for 30 seconds or more and the generator switch is OFF.
  80. What is the APU's primary function?
    To drive the 30 KVA electric generator.
  81. When will the APU starter auto cut off?
    At 50% rpm on a normal start, or with a start cycle greater than 60 seconds with the rpm below 50%.
  82. The APU ECU protects the APU compressor against surge by opening and closing what?
    The APU variable diffusers.
  83. The APU requires which busses to start?
    The APU battery direct bus ( Apu door, and starter ) The Main battery direct buss ( ECU interface ) and the battery buss ( PSEU's and APU ECU ).
  84. The APU modulates APU bleed air through what valve?
    The APU LCV ( load control valve ).
  85. The APU ECU ensures priority is given to what APU function?
    Electrical loads.
  86. What will happen if you have an APU fire on the ground?
    The APU will shut down, the APU Firex bottle discharges, and an external horn will sound.
  87. Where does the APU get its fuel?
    It is fed fuel directly from both main tanks via the APU/XFLOW pump.
  88. Will the APU shut down in flight for an over temp?
  89. APU provides pneumatic air for what two things?
    Engine starts and air conditioning.
  90. What is the max altitude for using APU bleeds?
  91. When do the igniters energize during the APU start cycle?
    They energize at 4% rpm, and remain on until 95% rpm.
  92. To get APU bleed air to the right pack what do you need to do ?
    Open the 10th stage ISOL valve and the LCV
  93. Why do you not wait between pushing the APU PWR/FUEL switchlight and the start switchlight, when starting the APU in flight ?
    Air entering the door will spin the turbine if it reaches 8% before the start switch is pushed the ECU will not allow the APU to start
  94. What is the max altitude for using APU bleed air to start the engine ?
    13,000 '
  95. What does the APU LCV valve modulate ?
    variable geometry diffusers
  96. What is the max rpm for the APU ?
    107% above that shutdown occurs
  97. What is the max ITT for the APU ?
    743 degrees C is the beginning of the red arc, temp may rise as high as 974 degrees during start with less than 50% rpm
  98. What is the purpose of the APU ECU ?
    It controlls all functions of the APU
  99. What powers the APU ECU ?
    The APU PWR/FUEL switchlight
  100. What maintains a constant 12000 APU rpm for the generator ?
    APU gear box
  101. What is the electrical rating on the APU generator ?
    30 KVA
  102. How long do you need to wait between start attemps on the APU ?
    2- minutes
  103. APU bleed pressure read out can be monitered where ?
    EICAS ECS synoptic page
  104. What is the max operating altitude of the APU ?
  105. Is the APU ECU AC or DC powered ?
  106. What are the three positions of the APU door ?
    Closed, Mid, Open
  107. `What is the airspeed limitation if the APU is deffered, with the door open ?
    300 kts
  108. How is the APU lubricated ?
    It has its own self-contained lubrication system
  109. How many pounds per hour does the APU burn with a bleed and electrical load ?
    Aprox. 120 lbs per hour
  110. How does the APU recieve its fuel if the XFLOW/APU pump fails ?
    the APU negative gravity relief valve which is pressurized by the right engine fuel feed manifold
  111. How many igniters does the APU have ?
    2- airgap igniter plugs
  112. Cant the APU be shut down from outside the aircraft ?
    Yes there is a remote cut-off switch at the external services panel, and also in the aft equipment bay
  113. What does it mean if you get a white DOOR message on EICAS with amber dashes ---
    The APU door position is unknown by the ECU
  114. What does pushing the START/STOP switch do when the APU is runnig ?
    It simulates an overspeed condition > 107% and The ECU closes the fuel solenoid valve, shutting down the
  115. What is the purpose of the screened vent on the left rear fuselage ?
    It allows air to get to the fan on the APU gearbox, which cools the APU oil and provides ventilation of the APU compartment
  116. What accesories are driven by the APU gear boix ?
    The AC generator, The FCU ( fuel control unit ) , oil cooling fan, oil pump, and the electric starter
  117. Where is the APU located ?
    Inside a fire proof enclosure in the aft equipment bay
  118. What is the secondary function of the APU ?
    To provide bleed air for air conditioning and engine starts
  119. How do you open the APU fuel feed shut off valve SOV ?
    Pressing the PWR/FUEL switchlight
  120. What are the four fire and overheat subsystems ( four areas ) ?
    Engine, APU, Main landing gear, Jet pipe & pylons
  121. What areas have smoke detection ?
    Lav and Cargo Bay
  122. Dual loop detection is provided where ?
    Engines, jet pipes and pylons and the APU
  123. What area has single loop detection ?
    Wheel wells
  124. What two areas have smoke detection capabilities ?
    Cargo bay ( has two detectors ) and the Lavatory
  125. The cargo bay Firex bottles are designed to allow quick release of halon, followed by a slow relase charge that lasts how long ?
    45 minutes
  126. How is the lavatory halon bottle discharged ?
    A heat sensitive capsule that melts discharging the bottle
  127. Pushing the Engine fire pushlight does what ?
    Closes the Fuel, Hydraulic, and Bleed SOV's, Takes the engine driven generator off line, and arms the squibs to the affected engine
  128. What will happen if an APU fire happens on the ground ?
    APU will shut down, APU FIREX bottle will discharge , and a horn will sound
  129. How can you silence the fire bell ?
    By pushing either Engine Fire Pushlight
  130. What happens when cargo smoke is detected ?
    A cargo smoke EICAS message is generated, power is removed from the cargo compartment fan and heater, and the cargo compartment air is shut off
  131. What does the "FAIL" position on the fire test switch do ?
    Simulates a system failure
  132. What does the "Warn" position off the fire test switch do ?
    Simulates a fire condition
  133. What is the indication of a fire in the Lav ?
    SMOKE TOILET " caution message and aural warning
  134. The fire protection system is made up two seperate subsystems , what are they ?
    detection and extinguishing
  135. What busses provide power for the fire protection system ?
    Detection is on the DC BATT BUS, and protection is provided by the DC EMER BUS
  136. What is the EICAS indication for a short in a fire loop ?
    FIRE FAIL message
  137. What does a missing message during the fire WARN test indicate ?
    The system has detected an open loop
  138. How does the fire detection control sense a fire ?
    By monitoring the electrical resistance of the fire loops.
  139. What must the fire control unit sense in order to send a FIRE message to EICAS ?
    It must detect the same decrease in loop resistance witin na preset time.
  140. What part of the engine has fire detecting capabilities , but no extinguishing ability ?
    Jet pipe
  141. What ducting runs through the jet pipe area ?
    10th and 14th bleed air ducts are contained in the jet pipe area
  142. What are two benefits of having the dual loop detection system ?
    Aircraft can still be dispatched with one loop inoperable, and also minimizes false fire warnings
  143. What chemical is contained in the fire bottles ?
    Halon that is pressurized by nitrogen
  144. Where are the engine fir extinguishers located ?
    In the aft equipment bay
  145. Can the right engine bottle only be discharged into the right engine?
    No it can be discharged into either engine determined by whichever switchlight is pressed
  146. Explain the positions of the ENG, JET, and APU selector switches on the fire detection control panel ?
    A: the system only monitors loop A, B: the system only monitors loop B, Both monitors both loops at the same time
  147. What happens when the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight is pushed after it has been activated ?
    An electrical current fires the squib on the associated bottle discharging it into the engine
  148. Does the APU have a single or dual loop detection syatem ?
    Dual loop
  149. Will the Halon automatically discharge if an APU fire is detected ?
    On the ground it will automatically discarge, In flight it must be discharged by the crew
  150. How many squbs does the APU bottle have ?
  151. Where are the APU fire loops located ?
    They are wrapped around the APU enclosure
  152. Where is the APU bottle located ?
    In the aft equipment bay beside the APU enclosure
  153. What happens when the APU FIRE PUSH switch light is pressed ?
    APU generator is taken off line, APU LCV is closed, APU fuel feed SOV is closed, APU shuts down by closing the fuel solenoid valve, and both squibs are armed illuminating the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switch light
  154. Can the cargo smoke detectors give a false alarm ?
    Yes they can be set off by radios, exhaust from ground equipment or even fog
  155. What does the CARGO BOTTLE test switch on the fire detection panel do ?
    Tests the fire extinguishing and smoke detection syatems in the cargo bay
  156. Where is the smoke detector in the lav ?
    On the ceiling
  157. What happens when the smoke detector self test switch is pressed on the lavatory smoke detector ?
    A red light on the detectoe illuminates accompanied by an alarm, and the EICAS will show an amber SMOKE TOILET message
  158. Can you reset the smoke detector in the lav ?
    Yes by pushing the test/ reset button
  159. Where is fire extinguishing provided in the lav ?
    In the waste bin only
  160. Where is the fire extiguisher on the flight deck ?
    Behind the first officer
  161. What is the indication if the fire loop in the gear bay fails ?
    MLG OVHT FAIL message
  162. What would the indication be if one fire loop detects a fire condition and the other does not ?
    L or R FIRE FAIL message
  163. What type of engines does the CRJ 200 have ?
    General Electric CF-34-3B1
  164. What is the sea level thrust ratings on the CF-34-3B1 ?
    8729 lbs normal thrust, 9220 lbs APR operating
  165. Describe the CF-34-3B1 engine ?
    It is a dual rotor free turbine engine,. The N1 fan is driven by a 4 stage low pressure turbine. The N2 section is a 14 stage compressor driven by a two stage high pressure turbine
  166. Which section of the engine drives the accessory gear box ?
    The N2 section
  167. What two paths can air take through the engine ?
    Either through the bypass fan , or through the core
  168. How much of the thrust is provided by the bypass fan ?
    approximately 80 %
  169. At low power settings is the engine N1 or N2 speed controlled ?
    At low power settings it is N2 controlled. At high power settings above 79% N1 with the engine speed switches on, it is N1 controlled
  170. What three sources of air pressure may be used to start the engine ?
    APU bleed air, Ground air ( Huffer cart or bottle ), or tenth stage engine cross bleed air
  171. The engine start switch does what ?
    Opens all tenth stage valves, Opens the ISOL valve, Opens the associated ATS ( air turbine starter ) valve
  172. What will the indication be if the ATS valve fails to disengage ?
    NO START CUT OUT caution message
  173. When the APR is activated, how much will the N1 speed be increased ?
  174. Where is the oil replenishment tank located ?
    In the aft equipment bay
  175. What are the conditions to arm the APR ?
    Both DCU's must be online, weight on wheels, APR switches armed, Speed switches on, and the N1 must be greater than 79%
  176. What does the sprague clutch do ?
    Allows for the ATS to be engaged while the engine is turning
  177. What is the normal oil level for the engines ?
    Above 4.8 quarts
  178. What does it mean if the fail light illuminates during the oil check ?
    The respective oil level sensor has failed
  179. When must the oil level be checked?
    3 minutes to 2 hrs after shut down
  180. When must the oil system be replenished if it is low ?
    15 minutes to 2 hrs after shut down
  181. What is the max ITT to introduce fuel during the start cycle ?
    120 degrees C
  182. What is the minimum N2 speed to introduce fuel during the start cycle ?
    20% N2
  183. At what N2 speed does the starter motor disengage?
    55% N2
  184. What 2 things are required for engine start?
    pressurized air ( 40 psi minimum ) DC power ( 24 volts )
  185. What is the N1 trigger for configuration warnings?
    70% N1
  186. What is the function of the variable geometry staters ?
    Controls relative wind on the turbine blades to prevent compressor stalls and helps with faster spool ups
  187. What are the limits for dry motoring?
    90 seconds ON - 5 minutes OFF, 30 seconds ON - 5 minutes OFF
  188. What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start ?
    -40 degrees C
  189. What 2 things will decrease engine thrust ?
    Increase in temperature, Increase in pressure altitude
  190. What is driven by the accesory gear box?
    Engine lubrication pumps, Alternator that powers the N1 control amplifier, Hydraulic pump, Engine driven fuel pump and fuel control unit, IDG, the ATS is also mounted on the gearbox
  191. Describe the Engine fuel control unit
    It is a hydromechanical metering device that meters the fuel supply to the engine, At low power settings The FCU hydromechanically schedules fuel, At high power settings the N1 control amplifier trims the FCU fuel output. It also controls and actuates VG inlet guides and stater vanes
  192. Are the ignition systems AC, or DC powered?
    AC, ignition A is powered by the AC ESS BUS, Ignition B is powered by the DC BATT BUS through a static inverter
  193. What are the three ignition modes ?
    Normal, continuous, and automatic
  194. Does continuous ignition energize syatem A, or B ?
  195. How do the thrust levers work ?
    Thrust lever position is electrically measured and a signal is sent to the DCU's, flight control computers, and the N1control amplifier
  196. What is 10th stage bleed air used for ?
    Engine starting, air conditioning, avionics cooling, and presurization
  197. What is 14th stage bleed air used for ?
    Thrust reverse, and Anti ice
  198. What is 7th stage bleed air used for ?
    Oil seal pressurization and venting of oil sumps
  199. What are the two conditions to arm the thrust reversers ?
    Switch is armed, and the respective 14th stage bleed air valves are open
  200. When can you activated the thrust reversers ?
    Weight on wheels or a 16 knot wheel speed, and thrust levers at idle
  201. Do the thrust reversers deflect bypass , or core air ?
    The translating cowl slides rearward deflecting bypass air
  202. Can you open the reversers in flight ?
    NO, they are locked out
  203. Explain the EMER STOW function of the thrust reversers ?
    When pressed the EMER STOW switch lights direct 14th stage bleed air to the PDU to drive the reverser closed
  204. Can the reversers and the anti-ice systems be used at the same time ?
    When the reversers are activated, the anti ice valves close ensuring adequate pressure is supplied to the reversers
  205. When is the APR activated ?
    When one engine N1 drops below 67% the APR activates increasing thrust by 2%
  206. When will N1 vib gauges appear on ED 1 ?
    After engine start, when oil pressure indications are normal. Gauges turn amber at 2.7 mils
  207. When will N2 vib gauges appear on ED1 ?
    Only when N2 vib exceeds 1.7 mils
  208. What will happen if a thrust reverser is accidentally deploy ?
    The auto retard system will automatically retard the thrust lever to idle
  209. How long is the APR armed for ?
    5 minutes
  210. The CF-34-3B1 is flat rated to what tempurature ?
    ISA + 15 degrees C
  211. During a reduced thrust take off will the APR increase thrust ?
    Yes , but it only increases the thrust by 2% of the reduced setting
  212. Are the N1 and N2 sections connected ?
    No they are independent
  213. Where is ITT measured ?
    Between the high and low pressure turbine
  214. How can you cut off fuel to the engine ?
    Shut off on the thrust lever, or pushing the engine fire switch light
  215. What is the purpose of the fuel oil heat exchanger ?
    To warm the fuel, and cool the engine oil
  216. What controls the VG inlet guide vanes and the stater vanes ?
    The FCU fuel control unit
  217. What could happen if the engine speed switches were turned off in flight ?
    There would be an increase in ITT and RPM that could exceed limits
  218. Will EICAS warn you of an impending oil filter clog ?
    No, once a filter clogs oil is rerouted through the bypass
  219. How do you check the engine oil level ?
    The engine oil test switch light located on the captains side panel
  220. How fast will the starter turn the N2 section with out introducing fuel ?
  221. What are the starter limitations ?
    two attempts 60 sec ON - 10 sec OFF, 3 attempts 60 sec ON - 5 min OFF
  222. During a start cycle , when are the ingnitors energized ?
    They are energized when the starter is engaged and, de-energize when the starter cuts out
  223. When must continuous ignition be used ?
    Take off's with 10 knots or greater cross wind, take off's and landings on contaminated runways, Flight in moderate or heavier intensity rain, Flight in moderate or heavier intensity turbulance, Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms
  224. What determines the automatic function of the ignition ?
    It is based on angle of attack, sensed by the stall warning system through the AOA vane
  225. Can the APR be activated on a go around ?
    No, only on take off
  226. How can you tell that the APR has activated ?
    The Green APR ARMED EICAS message is removed, and an APR appears on the N1 gauge
  227. What are the indications off a HOT start ?
    A rapid rise in TTT, a Red HOT icon will appear inside the ITT gauge, and the ITT pointer will turn red
  228. What are the indications of a HUNG start ?
    N2 will stagnate around 40% with a rather rapid ITT rise
  229. When will VIB gauges be removed from ED1 ?
    When oil pressure drops below 25 psi
  230. When starting engines with DC power, which do you start first ?
    The left must be started first because the left oil gauge is DC powered, Also use ignition B because it uses DC converted to AC through an inverter
  231. What is the procedure for aborting a start ?
    Thrust lever to shut off, Ignition OFF, Dry motor untill ITT is below 120 degrees C respecting starter limits
  232. What does the ATS actually drive ?
    The N2 section
  233. What is the purpose of the ATS valve ?
    It meters air flow to control enginge rpm during starts
  234. What are the oil temp ranges ?
    Green -40 - 154 degrees C, Amber 155 - 162 degrees C, Red 163 degrees C and above
  235. What are the oil pressure ranges ?
    Red 0 - 25 psi, Green 26 - 115 psi, Amber 116 - 156 psi
  236. N2 spli must be no greater than ?
    2% on the ground
  237. What is the max ITT on start ?
    900 degrees C
  238. What is the ITT for max continuous thrust ?
    860 degrees C
  239. What are the ratings of the CRJ's two batteries ?
    APU battery is a 24v, 43amp nickle nicad battery, and the main battery is a 24v , 17 amp nickle nicad
  240. What does the green DC AVAIL light mean ?
    External DC is plugged in and is the correct voltage and polarity
  241. What does the green AC AVAIL light mean ?
    External AC is plugged in and is the correct frequency, phase and voltage
  242. What is the frequency and phase of the AC power ?
    400hz, three phase AC
  243. What busses power the battery chargers ?
    AC utility bus 1 powers the main battery charger, and AC utility bus 2 powers the APU battery charger
  244. What are the sources of 115v AC power ?
    2 IDG's ( integrated drive generators ) APU generator, Air driven generator, And AC ground power
  245. What are the two components of the IDG ?
    A constant speed drive that converts variable engine speed to a constant 12000 rpm, and A 30 KVA generator
  246. What provides electrical power if there is a complete loss of AC in flight ?
    ADG, The air driven generator provides 15 KVA AC power
  247. How many circuit breaker panels are there, and where are they located ?
    6- CB panels 1-4 are on the flight deck, 5 is in the AFT equipment bay, and there ias also one in the galley
  248. What is the KVA rating of the IDG's ?
    30 KVA up to 35,000 feet, 25 KVA up to 41,000 feet
  249. What two conditions will cause an IDG FAULT ?
    High oil temperature ( greater than 160 degrees C ) and low oil pressure
  250. Will the IDG automatically disconnect for a FAULT condition ?
  251. What two conditions will cause the IDG to automatically disconnect ?
    Over torque ( aproximately 3300 lbs ) and, Over temp ( 168 degrees C case temperature )
  252. If you manually disconnect an IDG, can you get it back in flight ?
    NO, it can only be reset on the ground
  253. What is the purpose of the generator GCU's ?
    They provide generator fault protection
  254. What conditions will a GCU pull a generator off line ?
    Over/Under voltage, Over/Under frequency, or a generator or bus overcurrent
  255. What is the KVA rating of the APU generator ?
    30 KVA to 37,000 feet
  256. When switching between APU gen and gen 2 why does YD 2 dissengage ?
    There is a momentary loss of power on DC bus 2
  257. What are the AC busses ?
    AC 1 & 2, Ac utility 1 & 2, AC essential, and the ADG bus ( ADG bus is not depicted on AC synoptic page )
  258. Where are AC bus 1 & 2 located ?
    AC bus 1 is behind the captain, and AC bus 2 is behind the FO
  259. What is the AC bus priority ?
    Onside, APU, Cross side, and external power
  260. How many TRU's does AC bus one power ?
    Under normal ops only one - TRU 1
  261. How many TRU's does AC bus 2 power ?
    Three - TRU 2, ESS TRU 2, and SERV TRU through the AC SERV bus
  262. How many TRU,s ( transformer rectifier units ) are there ?
    Five, TRU 1, TRU 2, SERV TRU, ESS TRU 2, ESS TRU 1
  263. AC ESS bus in normally powered how ?
    By AC bus 1, however it can be manually or automatically transfered to AC bus 2
  264. What would the indication be if AC ESS was being powered by AC bus 2 ?
    The The AC ESS XFER ALTN light will come on
  265. What is the power priority of the AC ESS bus ?
    AC bus 1, AC bus 2, ADG bus
  266. During ADG deployment the AC ESS bus is connected directly to the AGD bus, how can you disconnect it ?
    By pressing the PWR XTFR OVERIDE button
  267. During flight the AC utility busses are shed when ?
    During single generator operations
  268. When would you get an AUTO XFER FAIL annunciation
    When the GCU senses greater than 37 KVA across a bus it isolates it by placing a " block" between the affected bus and the offside gen and the APU gen
  269. What will the indication be if the ADG has deployed ?
  270. What are the conditions to auto deploy the AGD ?
    All AC power is lost, Last AC power source was internal, weight off wheels, and parking brake off
  271. What are the ten DC busses ?
    DC bus 1 & 2, DC utility bus 1 & 2, DC ESS bus, DC SERV bus, DC Battery bus, DC EMER bus, MAIN BATT DIR bus, APU BATT DIR bus
  272. When will a TRU FAIL message be displayed ?
    When the TRU drops below 18v
  273. What is the one TRU that will produce a caution message when it fails "
  274. What does the DC SERV switch do ?
    Connects the DC SERV bus to the APU BATT DIR bus
  275. What is on the DC EMER bus ?
    Engine and APU fire extinguishers, and fuel and hyd. shut off valves
  276. What are the two functions of the battery master switch ?
    Connects the APU BATT DIR bus and the MAIN BATT DIR bus to the BATT bus, and also arms the bridging of the BATT bus and DC ESS bus in flight
  277. When do the AC utility busses shed on the ground ?
    Whith only one generator online and the flaps are greater than 0 degrees
  278. What bus ties are manual vs automatic ?
    Ties 1 and 2 are automatic or manual, ESS tie is manual only
  279. Will the batteries charge when DC external is in use ?
    NO, it takes the batteries off line
  280. What does switching the AUTO XFER switchlight to OFF do ?
    It inhibits AC power priority to manually isolate an AC bus
  281. What is the "cardinal rule"
    for pressing the ESS TIE light ?
  282. What does the ADG power ?
    AC ESS bus, and HYD 3B
  283. How do you transfer power from the AGD back to a generator ?
    Press the PWR XTFR OVERIDE button, and stow the AGD handle
  284. What does TIE 1 switch light do ?
    Connects the SERV TRU to DC bus 1 and sheds DC utility 1
  285. What does TIE 2 switchlight do ?
    Connects the SERV TRU to DC 2 and shed DC utility bus 2
  286. What does pressing the ESS TIE switchlight do ?
    Connects the DC SERV bus to the DC ESS and DC BATT bus
  287. How long can the batteries provide back up power if all electrical is lost ?
    Approximately 30 minutes
  288. If an Auto XFER condition occurs can you reset it in flight ?
  289. When will the DC EMER bus appear on the DC synoptic page ?
    When it loses one of its two sources of power,
  290. What condition will produce a generator overload condition ?
    When the GCU detects 34.5 KVA on a bus
  291. What are the HOT busses ?
    APU BAT DIR bus, MAIN BATT DIR bus, and DC EMER bus
  292. Why is it essential to pull the AGD handle , even if it has automatically deployed ?
    Pulling the handle " locks the aircraft in a weight off wheels " condition preventing the loss of DC ESS on landing.
  293. What does DC utlity 1 & 2 bus power ?
    Reading lights and passenger service units
  294. When will you get a MAIN BATT OFF or APU BATT OFF message ?
    The applicable battery has dropped below 18v
  295. Why is there an alternator on the accessory gear box ?
    It powers the engine ECU independent of aircraft power
  296. When will the battery chargers shut down ?
    If a charging cycle exceeds 90 minutes , or if a battery fault or charger fault is detected
  297. What are the electrical ratings of the TRU's ?
    28v, 100 amp
  298. Does the BATT MASTER need to be on for DC SERV CONFIG ?
    YES, it connects the APU BATT DIR bus to the DC SERV bus
  299. How would you isolate an AC bus ?
    By pressing the onside AUTO XFER INHIBIT switchlight and then turning off the affected generator
  300. Can The AGD be retracted in flight once it has deployed ?
    NO, only on the ground
  301. What hydrualic system powers the landing gear ?
    Hydraulic system 3 powers gear extension and retraction. Gear assist accuators are powered by hydraulic system 2
  302. What hydraulic system powers the brakes ?
    Outboard brakes hydraulic 2, Inboard brakes hydraulic 3
  303. If hydraulics are lost will the brakes still work ?
    In the event of a hydraulic failure,braking is still possible due to pressure stored in the brake accumulator, approximately 6 brake applications are possible with the anti-skid OFF
  304. How many PSEU's ( Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit ) are on the gear ?
    Each Main gear has two, and the nose gear has two providing system redundancy
  305. How do the gear doors operate ?
    MLG doors are mechanically linked to gear movement, Nose rear door is also linked to gear movement, while the nose forward doors are actuated hydraulically
  306. How is the gear held in position ?
    MLG is held up by uplocks and down by down locks. NLG is held up by uplocks and down by an overcenter locking mechanism in the drag brace
  307. When will you get the "NOSE DOOR OPEN" aural warning ?
    When the nose bay door is open for more than 10 seconds after the gear is up and locked, or if the airspeed is greater than 250 kts with the door open
  308. What happens when the manual gear release handle is pulled ?
    1-The nose gear door uplock and all three gear uplocks are released. 2- Dump valves are opened routing hydraulic 3 pressure to the return. 3- Nose doors open as the NLG free-falls. 4- NLG extends rearward and is assisted down by by two overcenter springs. 5-MLG extends free-falls outward and is assisted by auxilary actuators that are powered by hydraulic system 2
  309. How does the anti skid system sense a skidding wheel ?
    Speed transducers on each wheel monitor rotational speed and decceleration of the wheels and sends information to the anti-skid unit
  310. How does the anti-skid system prevent the wheels from locking up ?
    By modulating hydraulic pressure to the brakes
  311. What are the ranges and colors of the BTMS numbers ?
    0-5 green. 6-12 White. 13-20 Red. Each digit is 35 degrees C
  312. When are the BTMS numbers removed from EICAS ?
    30 seconds after the gear and flaps are up and the BTMS temps are normal
  313. How long are the gear warnings inhibited on take off ?
    2 minutes after take off. warnings are also inhibited during a windshear warning
  314. When will you get the "TOO LOW GEAR " aural ?
    If any gear is not down and locked with a radar altitude less than 500 ' and airspeed less than 190 kts
  315. When is the anti-skid system armed ?
    Anti-skid system arms with the switch and actuates when wheels spin up to 35 kts until wheels slow down to 10 kts
  316. When does the brake pressure read out turn amber ?
    Less than 1000 psi
  317. How do the wheels stop rotating on retraction ?
    The nose gear spins down. The MLG is stopped by hydraulic pressure that has been routed through the brake control unit during the retraction sequence
  318. How many detents does the manual gear extension handle have ?
    4, one for the nose door, and one for each gear
  319. What prevents gear handle movement on the ground ?
    The solenoid lock
  320. Where is brake pressure displayed ?
    On EICAS hydraulic synoptic page
  321. What are the two conditions for checking the wear pins on the brakes ?
    Hydraulic system 2 and 3 must beon, and the parking brake must be set
  322. What is the normal psi for the brake pressure ?
    1000-3200 psi
  323. What is the minimum brake cooling period ?
    15 minutes
  324. What hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering ?
    Hydraulic 3
  325. What happens to the nose wheel steering and anti-skid systems after take off ?
    They are disabled
  326. What provides shock absorbtion for all three gear ?
    Nitrogen charged, oil filled struts
  327. What is the purpose of the brush seals ?
    They provide an areodynamic seal
  328. How do you open the nose gear from outside the aircraft ?
    The switch on the external services panel. Hydraulic 3 must be pressurized
  329. What is the maximum gear retraction speed ?
    200 kts
  330. What is the maximum gear extension speed ?
    220 kts
  331. How is over heat protection provided for the gear ?
    A single loop sensing unit in the MLG wheel bin
  332. How is nose wheel steering accomplished ?
    By the tiller 70 degrees either side, or by the rudder pedals 5 degrees either side
  333. How does the nose wheel steering operate ?
    The nose wheel is moved hydraulically and controlled electrically by a steer by wire system
  334. How is the nose wheel centered on retraction ?
    By centering cams as the strut extends
  335. Can you get a steering fault in flight ?
    Yes , the system is continuosly monitored
  336. What are the chines on the nose wheel for ?
    To direct water away from the engines
  337. What is the speed limitation for the tires ?
    182 kts
  338. How are the tire protected from overheating ?
    The mains each have 4 fusible plugs. when they overheat the plugs melt deflating the tire
  339. What will happen if the BTMS turn red ?
    The system must be manually reset by pressing the overheat reset button. Maintenance should be notified
  340. How are the fuel tanks vented ?
    By two NACA scoop vents
  341. How does the fuel system computer detect quantity information ?
    Fuel quantity probes with a compensator unit in eachj main tank and the center tank
  342. What fuel information is displayed On the EICAS fuel synoptic page ?
    Individual tank quantities, Total fuel Quantity, and Fuel used
  343. What maintains fuel symmetry between main tanks ?
    Automatically controlled XFLO/APU pump and associated shut off valves
  344. How are the collector tanks kept full ?
    Gravity feed lines, and scavenge ejectors
  345. What serves as a back up to the main ejectors ?
    Two electric boost pumps
  346. From what source is the APU normally fed fuel ?
    Directly from the main tanks by the XFLO/APU pump
  347. In case of a negative-G condition, or a XFLO/APU pump failure ?
    From the right engine fuel line providing the line is pressurized
  348. With more than 500 lbs in the center tanks, how much fuel do you have to have in each main tank ?
    At least 4400 lbs
  349. Explain the automatic fuel cross flow function ?
    When one main tank is 200 lbs less less than the other, the XFLO/APU pumps fuel into the low tank until it is 50 lbs higher than the other main
  350. What are the three ways to balance fuel ?
    Gravity, Auto, and Manual cross flow
  351. What is the max fuel imbalance ?
    800 lbs
  352. Explain how fuel is transfered from the center tank to the mains ?
    When the main tank drops below 94%, ( 4400 lbs ) the transfer ejector pumps transfer fuel from the center to the mains until they are at 100 %.
  353. Do both transfer ejectors operate at the same time ?
    No, they are completely independent of each other
  354. How many fuel tanks does the CRJ 200 Have ?
    5- two main tanks, one center tank, and two collector tanks
  355. What are the fuel quantities of each tank ?
    Each main tank holds 4760 lbs, and the center tank holds 4998 lbs, total fuel 14518lbs
  356. What is the minimum fuel quantity for a go - around ?
    450 lbs per wing
  357. What is the average fuel burn per hour ?
    3400 lbs for the first hour, 2600 for the second hour
  358. Explain how the electric boost pumps work ?
    When a fuel pressure of less than 9 psi is sensed, and the boost pump switch lights are pressed in, Pumps come on to supply positive pressure to the main ejectors
  359. Doe the electric pumps operate indepedantly ?
    No, if one fuel line senses low pressure, both pumps come on
  360. How many ejector pumps are there ?
    6 - two main, two scavenge, and two transfer ejectors
  361. What does a fail light on the fuel panel indicate ?
    A fail light on the fuel panel indicates a valve failure, not a pump failure
  362. What does the manual cross flow switch light do ?
    Inhibits Auto cross flow allowing fuel to be manually balanced
  363. What is the purpose of the engine driven fuel pumps ?
    Supplies fuel to the motor and provides motive flow for the ejector pumps
  364. What are the two methods of refueling ?
    Single point, or gravity overwing
  365. What will happen if a fuel tank is over pressurized ?
    If a tank exceeds 5.0 psi, over pressure valves open to relieve pressure
  366. Are the APU fuel ditribution system and the Engine fuel distribution system independant of each other ?
  367. What is the purpose of the Scavenge ejectors ?
    The scavenge ejectors operate by motive flow transfering fuel from the main tanks to the collector tanks
  368. Where are the collector tanks ?
    Collectors are located inside the forward section of the center taink. All fuel consumed by the engines comes from the collector tanks
  369. Where are the main ejector pumps ?
    Main ejectors are located on top of the associated collector tank, and provide fuel pressure directly to each engine
  370. What are the two ways to close the Fuel shut off valves ?
    Fuel shut off levers on the thrust levers, or by pressing the ENG FIRE PUSH switch light on the glare shield
  371. What is the purpose of the fuel heat exchanger ?
    Fuel is heated by hot engine oil as it passes through the heat exchanger
  372. Where is fuel temperature indicated ?
    EICAS fuel synoptic page
  373. What is the purpose of the MLI's ( magnetic level indicator ) ?
    Each main tank has two MLI's and the center tank has one, they are used to manually detect tank quantities
  374. Where is the bulk fuel temperature sensor ?
    It is located in the left main tank. Bulk fuel temp, as well as engine fuel feed temps can be read on the EICAS fuel synoptic page
  375. When will the fuel quantity read outs turn amber ?
    Less than 900 lbs total fuel, or and imbalance of 800 lbs or more
  376. When will the bulk fuel temperature read out turn white ?
    When fuel temperatures are less than -40 degrees C
  377. When will the engine fuel feed teperatures turn amber ?
    Engine fuel feed temperatures less than 5 degrees C
  378. What does each tank have to prevent outward flow of fuel during wing low operations ?
    One way valves attached to the internal wing ribs
  379. What monitors and controls the fuel system ?
    A dual channel fuel system computer, Only one channel is active at any one time
  380. Where are the fuel filters located ?
    Just aft of the engine oil tanks, Filters are monitered by an impending by-pass switch
  381. If a fuel filter becomes clogged will you be able to telll ?
    Yes , an EICAS message is generated when a filter bypass occurs
  382. What color will the fuel lines be on EICAS if a fire has been detected, and the fuel SOV's have not closed ?
  383. What is the max zero fuel weight ?
    44000 lbs
  384. How many fuel injectors does each engine have ?
  385. How many psi do the electric fuel pumps provide ?
    35 psi
  386. Do the transfer ejector pumps have a back up ?
  387. Explain the construction of the wing tanks ?
    The tanks are a "wet wing " design. A sealant is used to make the wings the tank
  388. How can De-fueling be accomplished ?
    By inserting a de-fuel suction pump at the single point fuel port, or gravity de-fueling is possible by inserting a gravity de-fuel adapter into the fuel drain valves
  389. During a climb you notice fuel increasing in the center tank, what is happening ?
    Fuel is entering the center tank through the venting system. This is a normal condition and may increase center tank quatity up to 300 lbs
  390. Can you manually transfer fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks ?
    No, this is completely automatic
  391. Where are re-fuel / de-fuel operations controlled ?
    The re-fuel / de-fuel control panel on the right side of the fuselage just forward of the wing
  392. Why should you never open the gravity fuel caps if you don;t know the exact fuel quatities ?
    The quantity may be above the gravity cap level causing a fuel spill
  393. Explain the path fuel takes from the center tank to the engine
    Fuel is transfered fron the center to the mains by transfer ejector pumps, scavenge ejectors then move fuel to the collector tanks, from the collectors fuel is transfered to the engine by the main ejector pumps. engine driven pumps then increase fuel pressure and provide motive flow for the system
  394. How many hydraulic pumps does the CRJ 200 have ?
    6- Two EDP's ( engine driven pumps ) and four ACMP's ( alternating current motor pump )
  395. How many hydraulic systems does the RJ have ?
  396. How many pumps does each hydraulic system have ?
    2- , System 1 & 2 consist of one EDP and one ACMP, System 3 has two ACMP's
  397. What hydraulic pump does not have an AUTO function ?
    Hydraulic pump 3A
  398. With The hydraulic pump switches in AUTO, will the pumps automatically come on when pressure drops below 1800 psi ?
  399. Explain cross side IDG logic of the ACMP's
    Each "B" pump is powered by the cross side IDG.
  400. How many hydraulic accumulators are there ?
    5- total, one for each system and two for the brakes
  401. How are the hydraulic systems cooled ?
    System 1 & 2 are cooled by ram air. System 3 is not located near a heat source and needs no additional cooling
  402. What is the EICAS color logic for the hydraulic systems ?
    White = pressurized, Amber = less than 1800 psi, Magenta = system pressure is unknown
  403. Explain cross side IDG Logic ?
    ACMP 1,2 are powered by the cross side IDG. ACMP 3 is powered by either IDG. When the Aircraft senses weight of wheels, and flaps greater than Zero, Providing the ACMP pumps are in the AUTO position, they come on to provide a back up to the EDP's
  404. What powers hydraulic 3B in the event of a total electric failure ?
    The ADG
  405. What is the purpose of the "B" pumps ?
    The AUTO mode ensures hydraulic power is provided during certain phases of flight ( Take off, approach, and landing ) When selected ON they provide supplimentary hydraulic pressure for there respective system
  406. What is one condition for checking the hydraulic reservoir level ?
    The system must be pressurized
  407. What is the hydraulic reservoir pressure ?
    Reservoirs are kept at a constant 55 psi
  408. Where are the hydraulic systems located ?
    All components of system 1 & 2 ( with the exception of the EDP's ) are located in the aft equipment bay. System 3 is located in or near the MLG bay ( right side wing root area )
  409. What system powers the main gear assist actuators ?
    Hydraulic 2
  410. With hydraulic pump B in the OFF position, will it still be powered during ADG deployment ?
    Yes, 3B is powered by the ADG regardless of switch position
  411. What is the normal psi for the hydraulic systems ?
    2950 - 3050 psi
  412. When will you get a HYD LO PRESS caution message ?
    When pressure drops below 1800 psi
  413. What is the pressure of the hydraulic accumulators ?
    1500 psi
  414. What parameters will trigger a hydraulics HI TEMP caution ?
    93 - 96 degrees C
  415. What is the normal level of the hydraulic reservoirs ?
    45 - 85 %
  416. Gear extension and retraction is accomplished by which hydraulic system ?
    System 3. ( Main gear assist actuators are powered by system 2 )
  417. What pressure will give you a hydraulics hiogh pressure caution ?
    Greater than 3200 psi
  418. at what pressure is hydraulics pressure relief provided ?
    Greater than 3750 psi
  419. On the ground with pumps in AUTO and flaps at 0 degrees, which pumps are operating ?
    The A pumps only
  420. What pumps are available if you lose engine 1 ?
    All pumps except pump 1 A
  421. What hydraulic system poweres the out board brakes ?
    System 2
  422. Which hydraulic system operates the flaps ?
    None the flaps are electric
  423. How are the hydraulic switches, and ACMP pumps powered ?
    Switches are DC powered, Pumps are AC powered
  424. Which hydraulic pumps are powered during single engine taxi operations ?
    Pump 2A and Pump 3A ( providing 3A is selected ON )
  425. What flight control systems are powered by which hydraulic system ?
    Elevator & Rudder - 1,2,& 3, Left aileron & Spoileron 1 & 3, Right aileron & Spoileron 2 & 3, Left and right flight spoilers 1 & 2, Inboard GLD's 2, outboard GLD's 1
  426. Which pumps are EDP;s ( engine driven pumps ) ?
    1A, & 2A
  427. What color is Skydrol ?
    It is purple in color and highly corrosive
  428. When will hydraulic pump 1B or 2B be shed ?
    When an engine driven generator fails, the opposite side hydrualic B pump will be load shed
  429. How would you close the hydraulic SOV's ?
    By pressing the associated ENG FIRE PUSH switch light
  430. What is the job of the hydraulic accumulators ?
    To provide pressure to meet instantaneuos demands of aircraft systems
  431. Which hydraulic system has the largest demand ?
    Hydraulic 3
  432. When does hydraulic pump 3 A operate ?
    It runs continuosly providing the switch is selected ON
  433. If pump 3A fails will 3B come on automatically ?
    NO, it must be manually selected ON
  434. Will the APU generator power hydraulic pumps 1B and 2B if the engine generators are OFF?
    Only on the ground. In flight the B pumps require that cross side logic be met
  435. In cruise flight with flaps up, which hydraulic pumps are operating ?
    1A, 2A, and 3A
  436. How does the ice detector probe work ?
    The probe vibrates at high frequency, when ice accumulates, the frequency is dampened sending a signal to EICAS
  437. How often is the Ice detector probe anti-iced ?
    It is electrically anti-iced for 5 seconds every 60 second cycle
  438. When will you get a BLEED MISCONFIG caution ?
    When the anti-ice is ON, and flaps are greater than 0 degrees or the gear is down
  439. True or False , the Anti Ice synoptic page depicts actual anti ice valve position.
    False, it depicts comanded positions only
  440. Explain the Normal and Stanby functions of the wing anti ice switch.
    In normal, the anti ice valves modulate to maintain a constant temerature ( approximately 8 degrees C ). In Stanby, the anti ice valves open and closed to maintain a constant lower temp ( approximately 4 degrees C )
  441. When the wings are selected ON, what happens to the N2 gauges ?
    Amber arcs appear fro 0-77.9%
  442. On the Anti Ice synoptic page, what do amber "flow lines" indicate ?
    Amber flow lines indicate low pressure or temperature. ( red indicates over heat )
  443. An ICE advisory is generated when ice is detected and the wing temperature is ?
    39 degreesC in flight, and 18 degrees C on the ground
  444. How are the leading edges anti-iced ?
    The piccolo tubes uniformly direct hot bleed air onto the inner surface of the leading edges
  445. How do the wing anti-ice valves close ?
    Wing anti-ice and 14th stage bleed valves are spring loaded to the closed position. In the event of a loss of ellectric power, or loss of 14th stage bleed air pressure, the valves will close
  446. How are the engine cowls anti-iced ?
    Cowl leading edges and T2 sensors are anti-iced by 14th stage bleed air that is routed through louvers on the underside of the engine nacelle
  447. How are the Air Data probes, and sensors anti iced ?
  448. With the windshield heat in high, are the side windows heated ?
    Yes, however they are in low
  449. What does a WINSHIELD HEAT caution mean ?
    It can either mean a windshield over heat condition, or that the winshield heat is inoperative
  450. What happens to the ant ice during thrust reverser operations ?
    During reverser operations anti ice valves are closed
  451. What does an ICE caution message indicate ?
    The ice detector has detected an icing condition and the anti ice is OFF
  452. An ANTI ICE DUCT warning message means there is a bleed air leak where ?
    In the wing anti ice duct or in the fuselage
  453. What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve ?
    To allow cross side anti icing capabilities during single engine operations
  454. What does an ICE advisory message ( green ) mean ?
    Ice has been detected, anti ice is ON, and pressure and temperatures are adequate to provide anti icing capabilities
  455. Which areas of the aircraft are ant iced ?
    Wing leading edges, engine cowls, air data probes, windshields and side windows
  456. Where does the bleed air for anti icing come from ?
    14th stage
  457. Which position do the cowl anti ice valves fail ?
    They fail in the open position
  458. How is over pressure protection provided for the engine cowls ?
    A pressure relief valve located on each engine
  459. What happens when a window overheats ?
    The windows contain overheat protection, when an overheat occurs, power is removed from the affected surfce
  460. After a windshield overheat, how do you reset the system ?
    Move the WSHLD switch to the OFF/RESET position
  461. What does the OVHT light in the wing switch light indicate ?
    There is an overheat condition in the leading edge of the wing
  462. What does the DUCT FAIL light in the wing switch light indicate ?
    A bleed air leak has occured in the left or right winganti ice duct
  463. At what speed will the wipers operate if the Captain and the FO both have there wipers ON and they are at different levels ?
    The wipers will operate at the highest level commanded
  464. What provides monitoring and control of the probe and sensor heating ?
    3 - ADSHC ( air data sensor heating control units )
  465. Where is the standby pitot probe ?
    On the left side of the nose
  466. How is high pressure 14th stage bleed air reduced in pressure to provide cowl anti icing ?
    The cowl anti ice valves reduces it to a suitable pressure to anti ice the cowls. If pressure is too high the overpressure relief valve will extend to relieve the pressure
  467. What keeps Ice from building on the engine nose cone ?
    It is anti iced by hot engine oil
  468. How are movements of the cockpit controls transmitted to the control surfaces ?
    Control movements are transmitted mechanically via cables and / or pushrods to the aileron,elevator, and rudder PCU's ( power control units ) which hydraulically move the control surface. Spoilerons are also moved hydraulically, but are controlled electronically using " fly-by-wire technology
  469. Which pilot controls which aileron ?
    The Captain has control of the left aileron, and the First Officer has control of the right aileron. Normally the two systems are interconnected and controlled simultaneously
  470. How are the spoilerons controlled ?
    The control wheel generates an electrical signal that is sent to the SECU's ( spoileron electronic control unit ) The SECU combines control inputs with other information to determine the amount of surface deflection
  471. Where can you see the flight controls individual positions ?
    On the FLIGHT CONTROLS synoptic page
  472. Do the left and right spoilerons operate independently ?
    Yes, spoilerons operate on the " down going wing only
  473. Are the ailerons active above 300 kts ?
    No, spoilerons only
  474. What is installed on the ailerons to prevent fluttering ?
    Double acting shock absorbers known as flutter dampers
  475. What does pulling the ROLL DISC handle do ?
    Disconnects the control wheel torque making single-side roll control possible
  476. What happens 20 seconds after pulling the ROLL DISC handle ?
    The SECU commands both ROLL SEL lights to illuminate on the glareshield. Pilot selection of the ROLL SEL switchlight tells the system which side has control and transfers control of the cross-side spoileron
  477. What is the purpose of the bungee breakout switch ?
    If an uncommanded displacement of an aileron PCU occurs ( PCU runaway ) The switch sends a signal to the SECU which commands both spoilerons to respond to inputs from the operable control wheel
  478. Do you need to select the onside ROLL SEL switch in a PCU runaway condition ?
    No, it is done automatically by the bungee breakout switch and the SECU
  479. How many PCU's does the rudder have ?
  480. What will happen in the event of a rudder jam ?
    The rudder PCU's are controlled by two seperate cable systems. Each cable has a spring tension break-out system which protects against jams. In the event of a jam, each side still has rudder controll, however, additional pedal force may be required
  481. What do the Yaw Dampers do ?
    Eleviate dutch roll tendancies
  482. What does pulling the PITCH DISC handle do ?
    Removes the interconnect feature of the control wheels. Each pilot has control of the on-side elevator
  483. How does the pitch trim work ?
    The horizontal stabilizer angle is moved by jackscrews driven by two electric trim motors. The whole system is controlled by the HSTCU ( horizontal stabilizer trim control unit
  484. What is the control priority of the HSTCU
    Pilot, Co-Pilot, Auto Pilot, Auto Trim, and then Mach Trim
  485. What happens if the Stab Trim is held for more than 3 seconds ?
    The clacker will sound alerting the pilot of a possible trim runaway condition
  486. At what speed does the Mach Trim become active ?
    When Mach Trim is engaged, it becomes active above 0.4 mach when hand flying the airplane.
  487. How are the flaps controlled ?
    The flaps operate electrically
  488. How many spoilers are on each wing ?
    Four,- 1 spoileron, 1 flight spoiler,an inboard and outboard ground spoiler
  489. When do the GLD;s arm ?
    When the control switch is in auto, thrust levers are advanced to > 79 %, and the wheel speed is > 45 kts
  490. When do the GLD's auto retract ?
    L or R thrust lever is idle, Wheel speed is < 45 kts for 10 seconds, or the plane is on the ground for 40 seconds
  491. What is the minimum speed and altitude to use the flight spoilers ?
    Vref + 17 kts, 300 feet agl
  492. What conditions need to be met to deploy the GLD's ?
    Thrust levers at idle, and two of the following three items, weight on wheels, radar altitude < 5 feet, wheel speed > 16 kts
  493. What message will appear if one channel of the FECU ( flap electronic control unit ) fails ?
    Flaps Halfspeed
  494. How do you disconnect the stab trim ?
    Stab trim disconnect on the yoke
  495. How can you de-activate the stick pusher ?
    By pushing the auto pilot disconnect AP/SP on the yoke
  496. What power setting will trigger a take of configuration warning ?
    When N1 is > 70 %
  497. How can you cancel the stick shaker ?
    Shaker can only be cancelled by lowering the angle of attack
  498. How is the Stab trim system protected from a run away ?
    Each trim motor has a brake system to prevent run away of the stab trim
  499. What will happen if the flaps do not extend simulateously ( split flap condition ) ?
    If a split condition exsists > 3 degrees the PDU's are de-energized and the flap brakes are applied creating a FLAPS FAIL condition
  500. How many PCU's are on each aileron ?
  501. How many degrees will the rudder move ?
    25 degrees in either direction
  502. Are the Yaw Dampers connected to the auto pilot ?
    NO, they operate independenly. At least one yaw damper must be engaged in order to engage the auto pilot
  503. How do you operate the aileron trim ?
    Both halfs of the AIL TRIM must be pushed left or right to activate the trim
  504. Do all of the rudder PCU's need to be operating in order for the trim to work ?
    NO, a minimum of one PCU must be operating in order for the trim to work.
  505. Will moving the rudder trim move the rudder pedals ?
    No, do to the position of the rudder trim actuator, the trim will not move the pedals
  506. Where does the HSTCU get its inputs ?
    Auto Pilot, Mach Trim, Control wheel switches
  507. What is the " Normal" take off range of the stab trim ?
    3 to 9 units is the green band
  508. What is auto trim ?
    When the flaps are moving between 0 and 20 degrees , and there are no control inputs from the pilot or auto pilot, the aircraft will auto trim to compensate for the changes in areodynamic center of pressure
  509. Explain the design of the flaps.
    The flaps are double slotted fowler flaps. Movement is rearward and down from 0-45 degrees
  510. Explain the BUTE ( bent up trailing edge ) doors, on the outboard flaps.
    The BUTE doors direct airflow over the leading edge vanes when the flaps are extending
  511. When does the flap position indicator appear on EICAS ?
    When any of the following occur: Flaps are greater than 0 degrees, BTMS numbers are in the red range, Landing gear is not up and locked
  512. When will the flap indications disappear from EICAS ?
    When the gear is up and locked, flaps are at 0 degrees, and the BTMS is not red
  513. What is the degree range of the flight spoilers ?
    0-50 degrees
  514. What spoilers make up the GLD system ?
    All spoilers
  515. What will happen to the GLD's if a touch and go landing is neccesary ?
    When thrust levers are advanced, the GLD's will retract and the system will re-arm
  516. How would you manually retract the GLD's ?
    By selecting the spoilers switch to MAN DISARM
  517. How can a take off configuration warning be cancelled ?
    The warning will cancel if the thrust levers are retarted, or the problem that caused the warning is corrected
  518. What is the purpose of the selector valves ?
    They isolate the mach transducers from the pitot static system
  519. How can the stick pusher be de-activated ?
    Press and hold the AP/SP disconnect, select the STALL PTCT PUSHER switch to off, the pusher will also auto disconnect if it senses less than 0.5 G's
  520. What monitors the aircraft for correct configuration ?
    The proximity sensing system PSS wich uses PSEU's ( proximity sensing electronic units) to detect aircraft configuration
  521. What radios are monitored or tuned with the BTU ( back up tuning unit ) ?
    Comm 1, and Nav 1
  522. With only DC power available, how can you make a radio call ?
    By using the BTU
  523. How can you tune com 2 if RTU ( radio tuning unit ) # 2 fails ?
    Select RTU 2 INHIB, and then use the 1/2 push button on RTU 1
  524. When is the erase function of the CVR anabled ?
    With weight on wheels and the parking brake set
  525. Will swapping NAV 1 frequencies cancel the auto tune function ?
  526. Does the TRU have any protection for a stuck mic situation ?
    Yes, the RTU will stop any transmission that lasts for more than 2 minutes
  527. What does the call button do ?
    When pressed the call button hot mics you to the flight attendant
  528. Can you adjust the volume of the aural warning system ?
    No, aural warnings are not controlled by the volume knobs
  529. When selecting the R/T I/C switch to I/C, where can your transmisions be heard ?
    At all interior and exterior interphone units
  530. What is the purpose of the VOICE/BOTH switch ?
    Both allows morse code and voice messages from the station. Voice filters out the morse code portion
  531. Explain the EMER function of the EMER/NORM switch.
    When in EMER, the pilot has control of comm 1 and nav 1. the co-pilot has controll of com 2 and nav 2. the observer station is inoperative
  532. Who has priority over the PA system ?
    The flight deck. The flight deck PA will overide the FA's
  533. Can you adjust the PA volume in the cabin and the lav ?
    No, it adjusts automatically depending on back ground noise
  534. What happens in the cabin when the call switchlight is pressed on the flight deck ?
    The flight light illuminates green on the FA's handset, there is a hi/lo chime, and a red light illuminates on the exit sign in the middle of the cabin
  535. At what locations can maintenance use the interphone system to communicate with the flight deck ?
    Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, refuel/defuel panel, external services panel
  536. What frequencies will be displayed on the BTU when in standby ?
    It will duplicate com 1 and nav 1
  537. What is the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch used for ?
    When in INHIBIT, the remote tuning function of the FMS is inhibited
  538. Where is the CVR located ?
    In the tail cone section of the aircraft
  539. What are the four locations that are recorded by the CVR ?
    Pilot, Co-pilot, Mixed PA audio and the observers station, and ambient flight deck noise
  540. When does the CVR start recording ?
    When electrical power is applied to the aircraft
  541. Why is there a headphone jack on the CVR ?
    It allows monitoring of a recorded tone during the test function
  542. Where is the FDR ( flight data recorder ) located ?
    In the tail section of the aircraft
  543. How long will the FDR record ?
    It records the last 25 hours of aircraft flight parameter data
  544. When does the FDR start recording ?
    When one of the following three things occur: beacon is turned on, strobes are turned on, or weight off wheels condition is sensed
  545. What is the purpose of the FDR event switch ?
    When selected, it will highlight or mark a particular event
  546. What is the max pressure differential ?
    8.7 psi
  547. When will you get the cabin alt caution message ?
    Cabin alt of 8500 feet
  548. When will you get the cabin alt warning ?
    Cabin alt of 10,000 feet
  549. What is the altitude limitation for single pack operations ?
    FL 250
  550. What is 10th stage bleed air used for ?
    Pressurization, air conditioning, and engine starts
  551. What is 14th stage bleed air used for ?
    Thrust reverse, and anti- ice
  552. What is 7th stage bleed air used for ?
    Pressurization of oil seals
  553. What is low pressure ground air used for ?
    Cooling of the aircraft on the ground. cooling uses the manifolds, not the packs in this configuration
  554. How can you change from one pressure controller to the other ?
    Push the controller switch twice, or land
  555. Duct Test, tests which bleed air system ?
    Both 10th and 14th stage bleed air systems are tested. the test simulates a duct failure
  556. At what temperature will a pack overheat occur ?
    88 degrees C
  557. When will the passenger oxygen masks drop automatically ?
    When CPAM detects a cabin altitude of 14,000 feet plus or minus 500 feet
  558. What is the max Take Off, Land, and Taxi pressure ?
    0.1 PSI
  559. What position do the 10th and 14th stage valves fail ?
    14th stage valves fail open. 10th stage valves fail closed. The APU LCV valve fails in what ever position it is modulated
  560. At what cabin altitude will the CPAM turn on the NO SMOKING and SEAT BELT signs ?
    When switches are in AUTO and the cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet
  561. What is the max negative pressure differential ?
  562. What PSI will cause a pack overpressure ?
    53 PSI
  563. What is high pressure ground air used for ?
    Air Conditioning ( through the packs ), and Engine starting
  564. With engine cowl / and or wing anti-ice on, 10th stage valves must be in which position for take off and landing ?
  565. What is the normal pressure for dual pack and single pack operations ?
    Dual pack pressure is normally 30 psi. In single pack operations the pressure is increased to 41 PSI
  566. When the thrust levers are advanced, the automatic pressurization system pressurizes the aircraft to what altitude ?
    minus 150 feet of feild elevation
  567. What happens when the emergency depress switchlight is pressed in ?
    Both outflow valves open allowing depressurization. Above 14,000 feet cabin will depressurize to 14,000 feet plus or minus 700 feet. below 14,000 feet cabin will depressurize completely
  568. Where can you read the pressure of the APU bleed air ?
    EICAS ECS synoptic page
  569. What happens when the pressure controller is selected to manual, and the alt selector knob is selected to the up position ?
    The outflow valves are opened allowing the cabin altitude to increase
  570. Explain the return to feild parameters of the automatic pressurization system.
    below 6000 feet or a descent of 1000 feet per min within 10 minutes. The feild elevation does not need to be reset during a return to feild
  571. When is the auto pressurization activated during take off ?
    At 85% power lever angle.
  572. What four things happen when a pack fails ?
    The Pack shuts down, The pack valve closes, 10th stage ISOL valve closes, and the affected 10th stage valve closes
  573. Where is the flight compartment exhaust air routed ?
    Exhaust air is routed through the avionics bay and out the outflow valves in the aft equipment bay
  574. How do you supply APU bleed air to the right pack ?
    Open the LCV and 10th stage ISOL valve
  575. When is the pressurization info displayed on the PRI, STA, and the ECS synoptic pages ?
    When in manual mode
  576. To test the 14th stage ISOL valve, what needs to be on ?
    Wing anti-ice must be in norm, and the 14th stage valves must be open
  577. Will the oxygen masks auto deploy if there is a CPAM failure ?
  578. What is the EICAS color logic of the packs ?
    White = Not running, Green = working, Amber = failed
  579. Explain APU LCV interlock.
    Inter lock looks at switch position and uses logic to open/close the LCV. This serves as a back up to the APU check valve ( not shown on EICAS ) to protect the APU from back pressure
  580. What does a pack fault light indicate ?
    A pack high temp or high pressure
  581. How do the outflow valves open ?
    The are electropnuematically controlled
  582. When would you use the manual pressurization mode ?
    Failure of both auto controllers
  583. Do outflow valves require 10th or 14th stage air to open ?
    10th stage
  584. Where are the packs located ?
    In the aft equipment bay
  585. How is moisture removed from pack air ?
    Pack discharge air passes through a water seperator
  586. How is the pack air distributed through the aircraft ?
    70 % of the left pack air is routed to the flight deck, 70 % of the right pack air is routed to the cabin
  587. What is the purpose of the PRSOV's ( pressure regulating shut off valves ) ?
    To reduce bleed air pressure prior to entering the packs
  588. What is used to cool the air to air heat exchangers ?
    Ram air
  589. How is cargo bay air conditioning provided ?
    Recirculated cabin exhaust air is drawn into the cargo bay by a fan to maintain positive air flow. Intake and exhaust shut off valves are used to control airflow within the cargo compartment
  590. Explain the positions of the Cargo air switch.
    OFF = disables the system. FAN energizes the fan and opens the recirculation and exhaust shut off valves. COND AIR = provides automatic temp control by opening the COND AIR SOV allowing right pack air to be routed to the cargo bay and also activates an electric heater. A thermostat automatically controls the temperature in the cargo bay
  591. When will you get a Cargo overheat message ?
    When the cargo bay temp reaches 35 degrees C
  592. In auto mode , at what rate will the cabin climb and descend ?
    Climb at 500 fpm, descend at 300 fpm
  593. What areas does the bleed air leak detection system monitor ?
    Wings ,fuselage, and the engine pylons
  594. What is the altitude limit for the APU to provide bleed air for air conditioning ?
    15,000 feet
  595. What must you do when using low pressure air for cooling on the ground ?
    Make sure that the main cabin door, avionics bay door, or service door is open to prevent the aircraft from pressurizing on the ground
  596. What happens to the cargo air when smoke is detected int he cargo bay ?
    The cargo intake and exhaust air valves close. The cargo fan shuts down. The conditioned air valve closes and the heater shuts down
  597. What is the source of the vaccum required to operate the outflow valves ?
    10th stage bleed air and a jet pump
  598. When do VIB gaauges appear on EICAS ?
    After engine start. Before start oil pressure gauges appear
  599. What are the requirements to "BOX" messages?
    Status messages will " BOX " at any time. Caution messages require both main generators to be online, and less than one page of messages
  600. When are landing gear indications removed from EICAS ?
    30 seconds after the gear is up and locked and the flaps are at 0 degrees
  601. Explain the automatic unboxing of CAS messages.
    Status messages will un box when a new message is recieved. Caution messages will not un box. The new message will go on top of the box
  602. What page will appear on the MFD ( multi function display ) when EICAS is selected on the DRP ( disply reversionary panel ) ?
    Primary if one is not already displayed. Status if a primary page is already displayed
  603. What is the function of the source select panel ?
    It allows pages other than the primary to be displayed on the screen selected
  604. Explain protection of the primary page >
    Primary page is protected ( cannot be changed ) until its screen source is selected on the source select panel
  605. If you have selected ED1 or ED2 on source select panel and a warning occurs, what will happen ?
    Primary page will appear on the selected screen
  606. What buttons on the ECP will still work when the ECP proccesor fails ?
    PRI, CAS, STAT, and STEP
  607. What are the Take Off configuration warnings produced by EICAS ?
    Auto Pilot, Flaps, Spoilers, Stabilizer, Rudder, Aileron, & Brakes. Example : the warning for flap configuration would be " CONFIG FLAPS "
  608. When warning messages are generated by EICAS, they are accompanied by ?
    A trrple chime, a flashing master warning light, and a voice advisory
  609. Where are EICAS advisory messages displayed ?
    At the top of the status page
  610. When a caution message is generated it will be accom[panied by ?
    A single chime, and a flashing master caution light
  611. When are Take Off configuration warnings generated ?
    70% N1
  612. When the master warning lights are illuminated, pressing either light will do what ?
    Cancel the alarm, and reset the system for future messages
  613. What color are warning messages ?
  614. What color are caution messages ?
  615. What color are status messages ?
  616. What color are advisory messages ?
  617. Where do caution messages appear if there is a warning message ?
    Cautions will appear below warning messages
  618. What does EICAS stand for ?
    Engine Indicating Crew Alerting System
  619. How can you get rid of a warning message ?
    Warning messages will only go away if the problem is fixed
  620. What will happen if you lose ED1 ?
    The primary page will transfer to ED2
  621. What sends signals to EICAS to generate warnings ?
    DCU's data concentrator units. Most planes have 2 DCU's, however some older models have 3
  622. How are the CRT's powered , by AC or DC ?
    They are DC powered
  623. Are the CRT cooling fans AC or DC powered ?
    AC. That is reason for the 5 minute limit on dc power only
  624. What does the LDU ( lamp driver unit ) do ?
    The unit controls the panel and glareshield switch light illumination
  625. How is the lamp intensity set to bright or dim ?
    The IND LTS switch
  626. What does the PRI button on the ECP do ?
    When pressed a primary page will be displayed on ED2
  627. What does the STAT button on the ECP do ?
    When pressed a status page will be displayed on ED2
  628. Can you view all of the synoptic pages on ED2 when the ECP fails ?
    Yes, by using the step button you can navigate through all the pages
  629. What is the function of the MENU button on the ECP ?
    Reset the fuel used, and the N1 reference can be set to display on the primary page
  630. What types of messages are displayed on ED1 ?
    Warning, and Caution
  631. What types of messages are displayed on ED2 ?
    Status and Advisory
  632. What does the magenta color indicate on EICAS color logic ?
    Insufficient data
  633. Explain the phases of flight that the DCU inhibits EICAS messages ?
    Take off -Condition 1 : N1 > 79 % and less than 100 kts . Condition 2 : greater than 100 kts. Landing- Condition 3 : less than 400 ft AGL until 30 seconds after touch down or 400 ft AGL on go-around
  634. How do you get the maintenance screen on ED1 ?
    The red gaurded switch on the circuit breaker panel
  635. What condition will cause the ECP to become inactive ?
    Automatic transfer of the primary page to ED2, or a failure of ED2
  636. What does the DRP ( display reversionary panel do ?
    It allows either a PFD or EICAS to be displayed on the MFD
  637. Can an advisory message be cleared or boxed ?
    No an advisory message can only be cleared by deselecting the switch that created it
  638. How can you view all the caution messages if there are more than one page ?
    Pressing the CAS button will cycle through all the pages of caution messages
  639. Where does the Co-pilots PFD and MFD recieve their air data, altitude, and heading information from ?
    ADC 2 and AHARS 2
  640. In the event of a DCP failure, both MFDs can be controlled by one DCP by making a selection on the :
    Source Select Panel
  641. Where is the slip/skid indicator ?
    It is the rectangle underneath the roll pointer
  642. What is the primary purpose of the altitude alert system ?
    To provide altitude awareness
  643. What is the scale of CDI deflection in FMS mode ?
    5 nm per dot
  644. AHARS present alignment flags for how long during alignment ?
    30 -70 seconds
  645. When are windshear warnings enabled ?
    From 1500 to 10 feet AGL
  646. What does a yellow IAS flag indicate ?
    An airspeed mismatch between sides of 10 kts or more. A yellow IAS flag will be acompanied by an EFIS COMP MON on the right hand side of the airspeed tape
  647. What does a Red IAS flag indicate ?
    Airspeed data has failed. It will appear in place of the airspeed tape
  648. What is the purpose of the mach transducer levers ?
    To isolate the mach transducers from the pitot static system
  649. How long will the AHARS operate in battery power ?
    Approximately 11 minutes
  650. At what distance is DME shown in tenths ?
    Less than 100 miles
  651. Describe the standby attitude indicator ?
    It is a 28V DC gyro that displays GS and LOC information.
  652. How long will the standby attitude indicator last in the event of a power failure ? Approximately 9 minutes
    approximately 9 minutes
  653. How long does it take for the AHARS to initialize ?
    30 - 70 seconds in MAG. 10 -10 1/2 minutes in DG. Airborne 10 - 35 seconds in straight and level flight
  654. On the ground prior to engine start, what does a 1/2 lateral deviation of the side slip indicator mean ?
    AHARS failure
  655. Which pitot static system provides information for the standby altimeter ?
    Pitot static 3
  656. Where does the DH recieve its info from ?
    From the radar altimeter
  657. What are the information inputs to the AFCS ?
  658. When will radio altitude information be displayed on the PFD ?
    Below 2500 feet AGL. Tape is displayed below 1500 feet AGL
  659. When would you get a TCAS RA ?
    When intruding traffic is detected and closer rate detects a possible collision is within 25 seconds
  660. When will radar generate a PAC alert ?
    When the all of the radar energy is being attentuated by a storm
  661. What is IAPS ?
    Integrated Avionics Proccesing System
  662. How can you get cross side information displayed on the MFD ?
    Push the cross side knob on the DCP
  663. What is the green line on the airspeed indicator display ?
    The Low speed awareness cue. It represents approximately 1.26 VS
  664. What do the TAT probes provide information to ?
    The ADCs
  665. What conditions will produce a winshear caution ?
    Increasing performance conditions. A headwind or updraft
  666. When is half bank automatically engaged ?
    Passing through 31,600 feet
  667. True or false . The EGPWS automatically displays terrain info if there is a terrain warning regardless of what is displayed on the MFD ?
  668. Does an RA provide command bar information ?
    No. You will get avoidance information on the VSI only
  669. WX and Terrain information can be displayed on which pages ?
    Navaid sector, TCAS, FMS map. ( any page with range )
  670. What is the name of the panel that allows the airspeeds to be set ?
    ARP The Air data reference panel
  671. What is the name of the panel that allows autopilot commands to be input ?
    FCP The flight control panel
  672. What does a heading message on the PFDs indicate ?
    A disagreement of 6 degrees or more between each AHARS
  673. What does an amber ROL message indicate ?
    A difference of more than 4 degrees of roll ( 3 degrees if the glideslope has been captured )
  674. What does ann amber pit message indicate ?
    A difference of 4 degrees or more oif pitch ( 3 degrees if glideslope has been captured )
  675. What does an amber ALT message indicate ?
    A difference of 60 feet or more between PFDs
  676. What does an amber LOC message mean ?
    There is a difference between localizer recievers
  677. What does an amber GS message mean ?
    There is a difference between glideslope recievers
  678. What does an amber RA message indicate ?
    A difference between radio altimeters below 1000 feet AGL
  679. Where is the TAT probe located ?
    Underneath the First Officer's side window
  680. How can you remove MDA/DH settings from the PFD ?
    By pressing the center of the knob
  681. What is considered a good radar altimeter check ?
    When the RA TEST button is pressed it should indicate a RAD ALT of 50 feet
  682. How do you change the speed reference between IAS and MACH ?
    By pressing the center of the speed knob
  683. How are high and low speed cues presented to the pilot ?
    The red checker board on the airspeed scale. High speed indicates MMO/VMO and the Low speed indicated 1.06 VS
  684. What does the trend vector represent ?
    Predicted Aircraft speed in 10 seconds
  685. When does the MACH window appear ?
    It appears whe airspeed reaches .45 mach, and disappears when airspeed drops below .40 mach
  686. What is the range of the barometeric altimeter ?
    from - 1000 ft to 50,000 ft
  687. What happens to the altitude alert when the aircraft is passing through 1000 ft above or below selected altitude ?
    The aural tone sounds and the altitude bug flashes
  688. What happens when the aircraft deviates from a selected altitude ?
    At 200 ft deviation the aural tone sounds and the altitude bug flashes yellow ( a minor deviation will cause the bug to flash magenta )
  689. What is the indication for a failed radio altimeter ?
    An RA in a red box appears, and the RA tape and digital readouts disappear
  690. What happens when the ADC airspeed, altitude, or vertical speed fails ?
    Red air data flags will replace the information on the PFD
  691. What will happen if the aircraft descends to a negative altitude ?
    A yellow NEG will be displayed next to the altimeter
  692. What are the components of the AHARS system ?
    AHARS is made up of 2 computers, 2 flux detectors, and 2 compensator units
  693. When would you use DG mode on the compass control panel ?
    In areas of magnetic field disruptions or during an AHARS heading failure
  694. What happens when you select DG on the compass selector panel ?
    The flux detector no longer provides heading information
  695. What is the value of the vertical deviation dots on the glide slope ?
    Each dot is 1/4 degree
  696. What is the AMI ( alpha margin indicator ) ?
    During a windshear warning the AMI indicates the maximum pitch angle up to 30 degrees that can be acheived before the stick shaker will be activated
  697. How long will the AMI be present during a windshear warning ?
    60 seconds
  698. If the heading bug is turned more than 180 degrees in heading mode which way will the aircraft turn ?
    It will follow the bug
  699. If DME hold is selected will the FMS auto tune ?
  700. How can you tell if DME hold has been selected ?
    An amber H repaces the NM of the navigation source on the PFD
  701. How can you find out what VOR and DME stations the FMS is currently using ?
    By pulling up the VOR/DME status page
  702. What is the lateral deviation of the HSI ?
    1 dot = 5 miles in VOR, 1 dot = 1 dgree in LOC, 1 dot = 5 NM in FMS
  703. What does an amber A or E in a box on the attitude indicator mean ?
    Ailerons or Elevator is out of trim
  704. What does a red boxed DCP mean ?
    A DCP failure
  705. How do you display radar on the MFD ?
    Select the radar ON, and press the WX/TERR button on the DCP
  706. What is the purpose of the FMS PLAN MAP function ?
    To verify flight plans.
  707. Is electrical power required for stand by instruments ?
    No, however the vibrator for the stanby altimeter is electric
  708. What is the NAV source for the standby attitude indicator, LOC, and GS ?
    The VHF navigation reciever, or the BTU ( BTU will display com1, NAV 1 when in standby )
  709. What will happen if a disply over temps ?
    You will get a DISPLAY TEMP message , and information will be removed from the display. ( information returns once display has cooled )
  710. What does the De-Clutter function do ?
    During an unusual attitude all non-essential information will be removed from the PFD
  711. Where are the DME antennas ?
    On the bottom of the fuselage just forward of the wing
  712. How many DME signals is the NAV sytem capable of recieving at one time ?
    6 - each VHF NAV reciever can recieve up to three stations at one time
  713. Can you use the FMS to tune the NAV radios ?
    Yes, on the FMS radio page
  714. Where are the marker beacon antennas ?
    Just forward of the aft equipment bay door
  715. How many transponders are installed ?
  716. Where are the transponder antennas ?
    Each transponder has two antennas, one on the upper forward fuselage, and one on the lower forward fuselage for each
  717. What is the purpose of the EGPWS ?
    To prevent CFIT 9 controlled flight into terrain ) and to provide windshear warnings
  718. What MFD formats allow terrain info to be displayed ?
    FMS map, and Nav sector
  719. When is the EGPWS active ?
    The EGPWS is always active
  720. What will happen if the WX display is being used and the EGPWS produces a terrain warning ?
    Terrain info will replace the radar
  721. Can the EGPWS warnings be inhibited ?
    Yes, by pressing the GRD PROX over ride switch light
  722. When will the EGPWS produce a windshear warning ?
    During decreasing performance conditions. Tailwind or a downdraft
  723. What is the monitoring range of the TCAS ?
    40 NM
  724. What TCAS warnings are accompanied by an aural alert ?
    TA traffic advisory, and RA resolution advisory
  725. When will a threat symbol on TCAS produce an up/down arrow ?
    When climbing or descending at at least 500 fpm
  726. What are the two types of RA's ?
    Preventative tells the pilot not to fly a certain direction. Corrective tells the pilot to change his present vertical flight path
  727. How fast should you respond to an RA ?
    Within 2.5 seconds
  728. How do you know what the correct vertical speed to maintain would be during an RA ?
    The green arc on the VSI
  729. When are RA warnings inhibited ?
    Descending below 900 feet agl, and climbing below 1100 feet agl
  730. What are the 3 selectable modes of the TCAS ?
    STBY = all interrogations are prohibited AUTO = RAs and TAs will be provided. TA ONLY = only TAs will be provided
  731. What is the difference between REL and ABS on the TCAS ?
    ABS is absolute altitude based on barometric pressure. REL is relative altitude based on the difference between the altitude of the two aircraft
  732. Explain NORM, ABOVE, BELOW functions of the TCAS.
    NORM scans 2700 feet above and below the aircraft. ABOVE scans 9900 feet above and 2700 feet below. BELOW scans 9900 feet below and 2700 feet above the aircraft
  733. Does the OFF mode of the radar park the antenna ?
  734. Does the radar transmit during the test ?
  735. What is the danger zone in front of the radar ?
    2 feet
  736. What is the degree range of the radar tilt ?
    Plus or minus 15 degrees
  737. How wide is the radar beam ?
    12 degrees
  738. What tilt setting would you use to put the bottom of the beam level with the aircraft ?
    Plus six degrees
  739. What does the STAB button on the radar do ?
    Automatically stabalizes the radar to maintain desired tilt during turns and pitch changes
  740. What does the SEC button do ?
    Cycles the radar sweep between 60 degrees and 30 degrees allowing for a faster return during shorter sweep
  741. What is the purpose of auto-tilt ?
    To maintain a constant tilt angle during changes to altitude and range
  742. What is the MAP function of the radar used for ?
    Mapping terrain ( PAC alerts and GCS are disabled )
  743. What is GCS ?
    Ground clutter suppresion. Used to reduce ground returns on radar
  744. True or False. The TCF ( Terrain Clearance Floor ) data base contains all airports with a runway greater than 3500 feet ?
  745. True or False. The TAAD ( Terrain awareness alerting and display ) data base contains terrain information for the U.S and Canada ?
  746. When no sensor data is available, what mode will the FMS NAV in ?
    DR dead reckoning mode
  747. What happens when ALT is pressed on the FCP ?
    The auto pilot will maintain the pressure altitude at the time of selection
  748. When the auto pilot is engaged, will the FD sync switch be operative ?
  749. What does the TURB button do ?
    It reduces auto pilot gain making adjustments more subtle
  750. What does pushing the center of the ALT knob do ?
    It cancels altitude alerts both aural, and visual
  751. What doe the witness lights on the FCP indicate ?
    They indicate that the FCC has acknowledged the input
  752. Will the loss of one FCC disable the auto pilot ?
  753. What is the primary means of determining the flight director mode of operations ?
    The FMA flight mode annunciator
  754. What are the three modes of the " speed " button ?
    1- Climb or descend 2- IAS or Mach 3- Pitch
  755. What does pushing the AP XFER button on the FCP do ?
    It transfers auto pilot control from FCC 1 to FCC 2
  756. Does pushing the TOGA buttons disconnect the auto pilot ?
  757. Selecting various FD modes is accomplished how ?
    Making selections on the FCP
  758. If a new FD mode becomes active what will the indication be ?
    It will flash green five times then then turn green
  759. When is the missed approach shown on the MFD ?
    When missed approach is active, or when it has been selected
  760. What two ways can the FD command bars be flown ?
    Manually, or by the auto pilot
  761. How many FCC's ( flight control computers ) are there ?
  762. Where do the FCC's recieve their information from ?
    ADC's and AHARS
  763. IAre the yaw dampers part of the auto pilot system ?
    No they are independant. The auto pilot is a two axis system that works in conjunction with the yaw dampers
  764. How long does the command generated by the TOGA button last ?
    60 seconds
  765. Is the TURB mode available on approach ?
    No it will dissengage when the LOC is captured
  766. What are the lateral modes on the FCP ?
  767. What is the default lateral mode ?
  768. What is the default vertical mode ?
  769. What will the indication be when the aircraft reaches 1000 ft of the selected ALT ?
    An aural tone will sound, and a flashing ALTS
  770. When the aircraft deviates from a selected ALT by + or - 100 feet what will the indication be ?
    The altitude bug will flash and be accompanied by an aural tone
  771. What does each click of the pitch wheel equate to when in VS mode ?
    A climb or descent rate of 100 ft per minute
  772. What two systems are integrated by the AFCS ?
    The FD ( flight director ) and the auto pilot
  773. What are the four system components of the AFCS ?
    The FCP, 2 FCCs, 2 auto pilot servo motors, and both yaw dampers
  774. Where does the FD recieve its data from ?
    The FCC's
  775. During normal ops both one FD is supplying info to both PFD's, When would both FD's be active and providing onside info ?
    Take Off mode, Approach mode, and Go Around mode
  776. What happens when a FD fails ?
    A FD FAIL status message is generated and a red FD in a box will appear on the PFD's
  777. What are the two fields of the FMA ?
    The left side is active and the right side is armed
  778. What will the indication be if any of the information in the FMA is invalid ?
    It will be replaced by a red line where the information would normally be displayed
  779. What is the purpose of the FD SYNC button ?
    When the auto pilot is not active it will sync the FD to the current vertical and lateral modes
  780. Explain the TO mode.
    When a TOGA button is pressed, a green TO will be displayed on the FMA. in the vertical and lateral modes. The lateral mode will hold aircraft heading at the time of take off and the pitch mode will set to 15 degrees pitch up.
  781. When the LOC is captured what will automatically clear if engaged ?
    Heading mode, half bank, and the turbulence mode
  782. What course must be selected when activating the B/C mode ?
    The front course must be set for B/C mode to work
  783. What does the 1/2 bank button do ?
    It limits the FD bank angle to 15 degrees
  784. How is a pre-selected altitude armed when it is set in the altitude alerter ?
    It becomes armed when a vertical mode is selected
  785. How is the altitude capturing point of the FD determined ?
    It is determined by closure rate.
  786. What are the vertical modes or the FD ?
  787. With the FD in TO mode what will happen if an engine fails ?
    The FD pitch will reduce to 10 degrees
  788. What must you do before selecting a vertical mode on the FCP ?
    Select a new ALT in the ALT pr-select
  789. At what altitude does the airspeed automatically change from IAS to MACH ?
    31,600 feet
  790. When you press the TOGA during a go-around what will the pitch angle of the FD be ?
    10 degrees
  791. What control surfaces do the auto pilot servos control ?
    Elevators and ailerons only. rudder control is accomplished by the yaw dampers
  792. What conditions must exsist before the auto pilot can be engaged ?
    The aircraft must be in a stable flight condition. both FCCs must be operating, At least one yaw damper must be engaged, At least one channel of horizontal stabilizer is engaged and the HSTCU detects no faults
  793. With the auto pilot engaged, what will the indication be if the aircraft is out of trim ?
    You will recieve an AP trim caution message. example AP trim is LWD, RWD, ND or NU
  794. How do you know the AP has been disconnected ?
    A red AP will flash on the PFD and an aural warning ( cavalry charge ) sounds for five seconds
  795. What are the methods of disconnecting the auto pilot ?
    Pressing the YD DISC, Pressing either TOGA, pressing the AP ENG button, AP DISC on the FCP, Stab trim split switches, AP/SP DISC on the yoke
  796. What will cause the auto pilot to automatically disengage ?
    Windshear, Stall warning, Failure of both Yaw Dampers, or Unusual attitudes
  797. What are the eight ways the auto pilot will disconnect ?
    1- If both yaw dampers dissengage 2- AP button on the FCP is pressed 3- TOGA buttons 4- operating the manual pitch trim 5- switching to the standby FCC 6- lowering the AP disc bar 7- auto pilot DISC on the yoke is pressed 8- 2 seconds after a winshear warning it will auto disconnect
  798. Will the auto pilot disconnect during a windshear warning ?
    During a warning ( red ) it will dissconnect in 2 seconds. During an alert ( amber ) it will not disconnect
Card Set
CRJ-200 Systems
CRJ-200 Systems
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