State Board Review

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Author:
6soccer
ID:
97060
Filename:
State Board Review
Updated:
2011-08-14 23:56:16
Tags:
cosmetology
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Description:
Exam review
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  1. One of the major elements required for good health is proper:

    A) diet
    B) clothing
    C) coworkers
    D) training
    A) diet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. For a good sitting posture, keep your knees and:

    A) arms close together
    B) hips relaxed
    C) feet close together
    D) ankles crossed
    C) feet close together
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. A successful cosmetologist is a skilled:

    A) fashion expert
    B) fitness expert
    C) storyteller
    D) listener
    D) listener
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Bacteria are not harmed by disinfectants while in the:

    A) vegetative stage
    B) spore-forming stage
    C) active stage
    D) mitosis stage
    B) spore-forming stage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Bacilli are bacteria with a:

    A) rod shape
    B) corkscrew shape
    C) round shape
    D) curved shape
    A) rod shape
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS):

    A) is a form of herpes
    B) is caused by the HIV virus
    C) is caused by needle use
    D) attacks the nervous system
    B) is caused by the HIV virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Surfaces that may be sterilized are:

    A) nail plates
    B) skin
    C) nonporous
    D) wood and plastic
    C) nonporous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Disinfection is one step below sterilization because it does not:

    A) clean surfaces
    B) have an odor
    C) kill microbes
    D) kill bacterial spores
    D) kill bacterial spores
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. A disinfectant that is "Formulated for Hospitals and Health Care Facilities" must be pseudomonacidal, bactericidal, fungicidal, and:

    A) inexpensive
    B) pneumonicidal
    C) easy to dilute for other services
    D) virucidal
    D) virucidal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Rather than using bar soaps, which can grow bacteria, you should provide:

    A) baby cleanser
    B) alcohol wipes
    C) pump-type antibacterial soap
    D) a washcloth
    C) pump-type antibacterial soap
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The technical term for eyelash hair is:

    A) supercillia
    B) cilia
    C) barba
    D) capilli
    B) cilia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The chemical composition of hair varies with its:

    A) length
    B) color
    C) thickness
    D) growth pattern
    B) color
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The club-shaped structure that forms the lower part of the hair root is the:

    A) arrector pili
    B) papilla
    C) bulb
    D) hair shaft
    C) bulb
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The growing phase of hair is known as:

    A) telogen
    B) catagen
    C) anagen
    D) mitosis
    C) anagen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. A topical solution applied to the scalp that is medically proven to regrow hair is:

    A) hot oil
    B) astringent
    C) monoxidil
    D) finasteride
    C) monoxidil
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Long, thick pigmented hair is known as:

    A) vellus
    B) terminal
    C) supercilia
    D) barba
    B) terminal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Hair flowing in the same direction is known as:

    A) a cowlick
    B) the hairline
    C) the natural parting
    D) the hair stream
    D) the hair stream
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Wiry hair may have a hard, glassy finish caused by:

    A) loss of pigment
    B) flat cuticle scales
    C) overconditioning
    D) raised cuticle scales
    B) flat cuticle scales
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. A miniaturization of certain scalp follicles contributes to:

    A) postpartum alopecia
    B) telogen effluvium
    C) androgenetic alopecia
    D) alopecia areata
    C) androgenetic alopecia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Trichoptilosis is the technical name for:

    A) gray hair
    B) beaded hair
    C) ringed hair
    D) split ends
    D) split ends
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. The medical term for dandruff is:

    A) tinea
    B) pediculosis
    C) monilethrix
    D) pityriasis
    D) pityriasis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. A cape must not touch the client's skin because it may:

    A) be irritating to the client
    B) be a carrier of disease
    C) be damp
    D) have cut hair on it
    B) be a carrier of disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. In order to determine the water temperature during a shampoo:

    A) keep the faucet set at one temperature
    B) check with the client frequently
    C) test it on your wrist
    D) keep one finger over the spray nozzle
    D) keep one finger over the spray nozzle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Proper shampooing helps prevent:

    A) a flexible scalp
    B) scalp disorders
    C) split ends
    D) pediculosis
    B) scalp disorders
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. To maintain proper tension during haircutting:

    A) use a razor
    B) allow your index and middle fingers to overlap
    C) saturate hair
    D) do not cut past your second knuckle
    D) do not cut past your second knuckle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The amount of elevation from the head form is:

    A) measured in inches
    B) equal to the subsection size
    C) measured in degrees
    D) dictated by parting size
    C) measure in degrees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Thinning is not advisable in the:

    A) parting and nape
    B) hairline and nape
    C) hairline and guideline
    D) parting and hairline
    D) parting and hairline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. The results of a high-elevation haircut should be:

    A) the same length throughout the head
    B) longer in the nape
    C) longer in the crown
    D) one length
    A) the same length throughout the head
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. If the head is pushed forward during a haircut, the results will be:

    A) closely tapered
    B) longer underneath
    C) wispy
    D) undercut
    D) undercut
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Transition lines in hairstyling are usually:

    A) horizontal
    B) curved
    C) vertical
    D) diagonal
    B) curved
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. The actual surface quality of the hair is referred to as:

    A) volume
    B) texture
    C) depth
    D) density
    B) texture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The place the eye sees first in a hairstyle is the point of:

    A) balance
    B) emphasis
    C) harmony
    D) proportion
    B) emphasis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. A tight, firm, long-lasting curl is produced by the:

    A) no-stem curl
    B) open center curl
    C) full-stem curl
    D) half-stem curl
    A) no-stem curl
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. A finished curl is not affected by the:

    A) direction of the curl
    B) amount of the hair used
    C) size of the curl
    D) shape of the base
    D) shape of the base
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. If hair is wound one complete turn around a roller, it will create:

    A) an explosion of curl
    B) a C-shape
    C) a wave
    D) ringlets
    B) a C-shape
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. When a smooth comb-out is desired, be sure to:

    A) use a large tooth comb
    B) brush the hair smooth
    C) brush hair ends only
    D) style with your fingers
    B) brush the hair smooth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The temperature of heated thermal irons is tested on:

    A) a piece of tissue paper
    B) a damp cloth
    C) wax paper
    D) a strand of hair
    A) a piece of tissue paper
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Before the hair is combed out after blow-dry styling, it should be thoroughly:

    A) coated with gel
    B) cooled
    C) heated
    D) smoothed
    B) cooled
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The styling of hair with an air waver is performed in the same manner as:

    A) a chemical blow-out
    B) thermal waving
    C) blow-out waving
    D) finger waving
    D) finger waving
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Before perming, the hair should be tested for porosity and:

    A) density
    B) elasticity
    C) length
    D) texture
    B) elasticity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. The size of the curl or wave in permanent waving is controlled by:

    A) the solution used
    B) processing time
    C) the size of the perm rod
    D) the neutralization process
    C) the size of the perm rod
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. The diameter of the individual hair strand is the hair's:

    A) porosity
    B) texture
    C) elasticity
    D) density
    D) density
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Average permanent wave partings should match:

    A) the size of the end papers
    B) in width and length
    C) from crown to nape
    D) the diameter of the rod
    D) the diameter of the rod
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. When a perm is activated by outside heat, such as a hood dryer, it is:

    A) exothermic
    B) neutral balanced
    C) external processing
    D) endothermic
    D) endothermic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. A weak or limp wave formation is the result of:

    A) incorrect blocking
    B) underprocessing
    C) using too much solution
    D) tension winding
    B) underprocessing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Acid-balanced and neutral permanent wave lotions produce:

    A) deep, tight waves
    B) spiral curls
    C) shorter-lasting waves
    D) soft, natural-looking waves
    D) soft, natural-looking waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. A predisposition test is performed before a haircolor service to determine:

    A) proper application method
    B) allergy to aniline
    C) processing time
    D) haircolor results
    B) allergy to aniline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The lightest primary color is:

    A) yellow
    B) white
    C) red
    D) blue
    A) yellow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Orange is created by mixing:

    A) red and blue
    B) red and white
    C) yellow and red
    D) yellow and blue
    C) yellow and red
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Semi-permanent color:

    A) will fade without a regrowth
    B) requires an oxidizer
    C) is endothermic
    D) lasts 4-6 weeks
    A) will fade without a regrowth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Dry peroxide is used to:

    A) decrease processing time
    B) dilute other strengths
    C) boost peroxide strength
    D) thicken liquid color
    C) boost peroxide strength
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Progressive haircolors fall under the classification of:

    A) vegetable tints
    B) oxidative tints
    C) metallic dyes
    D) compound dyes
    C) metallic dyes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Non-ammonia alkali and low volume developer is used with:

    A) nonoxidative permanent color
    B) polymer semi-color
    C) oxidative deposit-only color
    D) traditional semi-permanent color
    C) oxidative deposit-only color
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. A disadvantage of cream peroxide is that it:

    A) may dilute the color strength
    B) is hard to mix with bleach
    C) can become lumpy
    D) may dry too quickly
    A) may dilute the color strength
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. To lighten previously tinted hair:

    A) select a lighter single-process tint
    B) apply powder bleach
    C) use a color remover before tinting
    D) use a higher volume of peroxide
    C) use a color remover before tinting
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. A factor that affects the processing time of a chemical relaxer is:

    A) previous styling products used
    B) hair length
    C) hair porosity
    D) the season of the year
    C) hair porosity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The test that determines the hair's degress of elasticity is known as the:

    A) strand test
    B) finger test
    C) match test
    D) pull test
    D) pull test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. The two general types of hair relaxers are ammonium thioglycolate and:

    A) sodium hydroxide
    B) compound henna
    C) pressing oil
    D) fillers
    A) sodium hydroxide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. If hair "beads" from the scalp during a relaxer:

    A) add neutralizer
    B) mist with the water bottle
    C) rinse immediately
    D) continue to process
    D) continue to process
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Hair pressing generally lasts:

    A) one week
    B) until shampooed
    C) 4-6 weeks
    D) overnight
    B) until shampooed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. When pressing gray hair, use light pressure and:

    A) a larger pressing comb
    B) more pressing oil
    C) smaller subsections
    D) moderate heat
    D) moderate heat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. A hard press in which a hot curling iron is passed through the hair first is called a:

    A) chemical press
    B) double press
    C) thermal press
    D) single press
    B) double press
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. A scalp may be classified as normal, flexible, or:

    A) tight
    B) brittle
    C) thin
    D) porous
    A) tight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Each time a human hair wig is dry-cleaned, it should be:

    A) resized
    B) restretched
    C) reknotted
    D) reconditioned
    D) reconditioned
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. If a client is accidentally cut during a manicure, apply_____to stop the bleeding.

    A) a styptic pencil
    B) alcohol
    C) petroleum jelly
    D) powdered alum
    D) powdered alum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. While a manicure is performed, instruments should be kept in a:

    A) jar sanitizer
    B) bead sterilizer
    C) drawer
    D) plastic bag attached to station
    A) jar sanitizer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. A hand massage may be given during a manicure:

    A) before soaking
    B) before filing
    C) before pushing cuticles
    D) before polish
    D) before polish
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Brushes used for acrylic overlays are cleaned by dipping into:

    A) a weak quat
    B) alcohol
    C) soapy water
    D) polish remover
    D) polish remover
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. The strongest material used for nail wrapping is:

    A) mending tissue
    B) acrylic
    C) linen
    D) silk
    C) linen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Fungus is caused by the trapping of dirt and _____between artificial nail products and the natural nail.

    A) natural oils
    B) nail polish
    C) primer
    D) moisture
    D) moisture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. The light color of the lunula is caused by light reflection where:

    A) the matrix and connective tissue of the nail bed join
    B) the matrix and cuticle join
    C) the free edge and the nail bed join
    D) the nail bed and walls join
    A) the matrix and connective tissue of the nail bed join
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. The technical name for the nail is:

    A) oncyhia
    B) onychauxis
    C) onychosis
    D) onyx
    D) onyx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. The medical term for brittle nail is:

    A) onychia
    B) onychocryptosis
    C) onychophagy
    D) onychorrhexis
    D) onychorrhexis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Bitten nails are referred to as:

    A) onychophagy
    B) onychia
    C) onychorrhexis
    D) onychocryptosis
    A) onychophagy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. One area the cosmetologist is not licensed to massage is the:

    a) leg below the knee
    b) upper chest
    c) leg above the knee
    d) back of the leg
    c) leg above the knee
  76. The most invigorating massage movement is:

    A) tapotement
    B) vibration
    C) friction
    D) kneading
    A) tapotement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Following the removal of blackheads apply:

    A) massage cream
    B) a mud mask
    C) astringent
    D) cool towels
    C) astringent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Studies show acne may be due to:

    A) chocolate
    B) lack of skin care
    C) hereditary factors
    D) fast foods
    C) hereditary factors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. A household ingredient that may be used for a hydrating effect in a mask is:

    A) honey
    B) egg whites
    C) cucumbers
    D) strawberries
    A) honey
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Eyebrows are properly tweezed:

    A) in the direction of their growth
    B) after foundation is applied
    C) in an upward motion
    D) after every makeup application
    A) in the direction of their growth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. The layer of the epidermis that is continually being shed is the:

    A) stratum corneum
    B) stratum lucidum
    C) stratum granulosum
    D) stratum mucosum
    A) stratum corneum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. The duct of an oil gland empties into the:

    A) fundus
    B) blood stream
    C) hair follicle
    D) sweat pore
    C) hair follicle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Comedone is the technical name for a:

    A) naevus
    B) whitehead
    C) blackhead
    D) macule
    C) blackhead
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. In seborrhea, the appearance of the skin is:

    A) oily and shiny
    B) dry and dull
    C) smooth and pink
    D) red and blotchy
    A) oily and shiny
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Hyperhidrosis occurs most frequently in the area of the:

    A) armpits
    B) elbows
    C) forehead
    D) bottom of the feet
    A) armpits
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. The cotton cloth is removed after a wax treatment:

    A) in the opposite direction of hair growth
    B) slowly
    C) with tweezers
    D) in the direction of hair growth
    A) in the opposite direction of hair growth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. The temperature of hot wax should be tested on:

    A) your arm
    B) your fingertip
    C) wax paper
    D) the client's wrist
    A) your arm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. The heart, lungs, kidneys, stomach, and intestines are body:

    A) organs
    B) tissues
    C) systems
    D) functions
    A) organs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. One of the functions of the bones is to:

    A) protect muscles
    B) add weight to the body
    C) house nerve endings
    D) give shape and support to the body
    D) give shape and support to the body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. A unit of electrical pressure is referred to as a/an:

    A) volt
    B) watt
    C) ohm
    D) ampere
    A) volt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. The Tesla current is commonly called the:

    A) low-frequency current
    B) violet ray
    C) infrared ray
    D) ultraviolet ray
    B) violet ray
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. About 80% of natural sunshine consists of:

    A) actinic rays
    B) visible light rays
    C) infrared rays
    D) ultraviolet rays
    C) infrared rays
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. The smallest particle of an element is the:

    A) electron
    B) nucleus
    C) atom
    D) molecule
    C) atom
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Baby shampoos are generally classified as:

    A) nonionics
    B) amphoterics
    C) anionics
    D) cationics
    B) amphoterics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. An alkaline causes the hair to:

    A) close the cuticle layer
    B) soften and swell
    C) harden and shrink
    D) stretch and return
    B) soften and swell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Quats may be included in moisturizers for their ability to:

    A) lubricate
    B) aid in rinsing
    C) attach to hair fibers
    D) repel water
    C) attach to hair fibers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. The ingredients in deodorant soap that may increase skin sensitivity to the sun is:

    A) phenol
    B) triclocarbon
    C) fatty acids
    D) glycerine
    B) triclocarbon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Salon and individual licenses are covered by:

    A) federal laws
    B) local laws
    C) county regulations
    D) state laws
    D) state laws
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Before selling a service or product to a client, you must first determine if there is:

    A) a product guarantee
    B) sufficient income potential
    C) an upcoming sale
    D) a need for it
    D) a need for it
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Payroll books and canceled checks should be retained for:

    A) 6 years
    B) 7 months
    C) 7 years
    D) 6 months
    C) 7 years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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